Abnormal and Criminal Behavior Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course explores the psychological, social, and biological factors underlying abnormal and criminal behavior. Students will examine major theories of psychopathology, including how mental disorders are classified, diagnosed, and treated, as well as their connections to criminal activity. Emphasis is placed on understanding the distinction between abnormal behavior and criminal conduct, the role of societal norms, and the impact of the legal system. Through case studies and current research, students will analyze the causes and correlates of behaviors ranging from minor deviance to serious criminal acts, and review strategies for intervention, prevention, and rehabilitation.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Psychology 4th Edition by Joanna
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30 Chapters
927 Verified Questions
927 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40501
Sample Questions
Q1) Stern's 1901 "reality experiment" involved a bogus quarrel between two students in which a gun was involved.Stern concluded that:
A)racial discrimination is common
B)pre-trial media has a strong influence on eyewitness accuracy
C)retroactive memory-falsification tends to occur
D)emotional arousal influences accuracy of recall
E)none of the above
Answer: D
Q2) In what legal case did the Supreme Court of Canada rule that police interrogation techniques using psychological coercion were an accep way to extract confessions and were admissible in court?
A)R.v.Swain
B)R.v.L.T.H.
C)R.v.Gladue
D)R.v.Oickle
E)R.v.Hubbert
Answer: D
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Chapter 1: B: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Provide a comprehensive (i.e.,broad)definition of forensic psychology.
Answer: According to Bartol and Bartol (2006),forensic psychology is defined as (a)the research endeavour that examines aspects of human behaviour directly related to the legal process and (b)the professional practice of psychology within or in consultation with a legal system that embraces both civil and criminal law.
Q2) What is the "general acceptance test"? What is the main criticism associated with this test?
Answer: -The general acceptance test is a standard for accepting expert testimony.It states that expert testimony will be admissible in court if the basis of the testimony is generally accepted within the scientific community in which it belongs. -This test formed the basis for admissibility decisions for many years in the United States; however,the major criticism associated with it comes from the vagueness of terms such as "general acceptance" and "the particular field in which it belongs" and whether judges are able to appropriately determine the scope of these terms.
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4
Chapter 2: A: Police Psychology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following the death of Robert Dziekanski in 2007 after being tasered by RCMP in the Vancouver International Airport,new policies were released which restricted taser use only to situations where
A)suspects are not cooperating with police officers.
B)suspects are trying to escape from police custody.
C)suspects are exhibiting active resistance such as causing bodily harm to self or others.
D)suspects are uttering verbal threats against police officers or members of the public.
E)suspects refuse to comply with police requests.
Answer: C
Q2) Police officers are exposed to a wide range of stressors.Experiencing shift work and being exposed to human suffering are examples of:
A)public stressors
B)organizational stressors
C)criminal justice stressors
D)occupational stressors
E)selection stressors
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: B: Police Psychology
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7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process.Name these stages and explain them briefly.
Q2) Name and describe two of the three most common types of police selection procedures.
Q3) List four reasons why police discretion is necessary,as indicated by Sheehan and Cordner (1989).
Q4) You are a police officer who has encountered a mentally ill person causing a disturbance.What are the three main options available to you in this situation? Identify a disadvantage associated with each.
Q5) What are the main conclusions from Butler and Hall's (2008)study of use of force using data from the Calgary Police Service?
Q6) Define "police discretion" and name three areas of policing in which discretion is often used.
Q7) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.
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Chapter 3: A: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While interrogating Jane Doe,Officer Hamilton states,"Look,I've got three eyewitnesses that say you did it and your fingerprints are all over the gun found at the scene." Officer Hamilton's statement is an example of which category of interrogation tactic?
A)Minimization
B)Maximization
C)A soft sell tactic
D)A baiting question
E)Good cop-bad cop
Q2) Which of the following was not identified by Gudjonsson (1992)as a vulnerability factor associated with the occurrence of coerced-internalized false confessions?
A)the confessor's history of substance use or interference with brain function
B)the confessor experiencing severe anxiety and confusion
C)the confessor's desire to protect someone else
D)the confessor's feelings of generalized guilt
E)the confessor's inability to distinguish fact from fantasy
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Chapter 3: B: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the equation specified by Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990)that describes the process of criminal profiling? Define or explain each component of the equation.
Q2) List five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q3) What are the three main categories of false confessions proposed by Kassin and Wrightsman (1985)? Describe each and identify the circumstances under which each are likely to arise.
Q4) What is the name of the interrogation model that is most often taught to police officers in North America? Briefly describe the model's three stages.
Q5) Define what is meant by minimization and maximization techniques and provide one example of each technique.
Q6) What does the acronym for the PEACE model of interrogation stand for? Briefly describe the primary goal of this model,and provide one example of how Canadian police officers are not adhering o the principles advocated by the PEACE model.
Q7) Define criminal profiling in general terms and provide four main goals of criminal profiling.
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Page 8
Chapter 4: A: Deception
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what case did the Supreme Court of Canada rule that polygraph evidence should not be admitted in court to help determine truthfulness?
A)R.v.Hubbert
B)R.v.Mohan
C)R.v.Swain
D)R.v.Beland
E)R.v.Frye
Q2) Which of the following is not a cue to malingered psychosis in criminal defendants?
A)hallucinations with delusions
B)understandable motive for committing crime
C)absence of subtle signs of psychosis
D)presence of a partner in the crime
E)visual hallucinations in black and white
Q3) Which verbal indicator has been most strongly associated with deception?
A)speech fillers
B)voice pitch
C)speech pauses
D)speech errors (e.g.,slips of the tongue)
E)rate of speech
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Page 9
Chapter 4: B: Deception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rogers (1990)describes three explanatory models of malingering.Name and define these three models.Which model is most highly supported?
Q2) Provide four criticisms of the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
Q3) What are the eight strategies that a person may employ when malingering identified by the Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)?
Q4) Provide two verbal and two nonverbal cues (variables)demonstrated to be reliable indicators of deception.
Q5) According to your text,what are the two key components of malingering? List four reasons why an individual might be motivated to malinger.
Q6) What concern has been raised regarding use of brain-imaging evidence in court? Discuss research that has examined this concern.
Q7) Describe how event-related brain potentials (ERPs)have been used to detect deception.
Q8) Describe the four phases of a Comparison Question Test (CQT).Make sure you identify the purpose of each phase.
Q9) Give two explanations for poor performance in deception detection.
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Chapter 5: A: Eyewitness Testimony
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Sander wants to conduct an experiment to examine whether memory is better for events that are witnessed versus events one is directly involved in.He sets up a staged event where participants arrive in groups of three to his study (one is a confederate),are asked to take out their wallets to show their photo ID,followed by the confederate who steals one participant's wallet and runs off down the hall.Both participants (the witness and the victim)are questioned by campus security separately about what happened,and asked to identify the suspect out of a photo lineup. In this example,the dependent variable is:
A)What the confederate stole from the participant
B)Whether the memory is reported by a victim or a witness
C)How the participants were interviewed about the "crime"
D)Whether there were differences in correct or false identifications
E)How much information the participants reported
Q2) What is the most common research method for studying eyewitness issues?
A)field study
B)archival research
C)laboratory simulation study
D)recall study
E)recognition study
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Page 11
Chapter 5: B: Eyewitness Testimony
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) State two difficulties with the use of hypnosis in the eyewitness context.
Q2) On the basis of the research you have read in the textbook,list five recommendations that you would make to police forces regarding how they should conduct police lineups.
Q3) Distinguish between the cue-utilization hypothesis and the unusualness hypothesis as explanations for the weapon focus effect.
Q4) What is the cross-race effect? Describe the three common explanations as to why the cross-race effect occurs.
Q5) Describe the three major types of biases that have been found to increase false positives in lineup identifications.
Q6) List the correct decisions associated with both target-present and target-absent lineups.Also,list the potential errors that can be made in the lineup identification process and whether these errors are known or unknown to the police.
Q7) Distinguish between a system variable and an estimator variable as related to eyewitness research.Provide one example of each.
Q8) List the five reasons why photo lineups are more common than live lineups.
Q9) Distinguish between a simultaneous and a sequential lineup.
Page 12
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Chapter 6: A: Child Victims and Witnesses
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a retrospective study by Perez-Fuentes et al.(2012)involving interviews between 2004-2005 in the United States,approximately what percentage of male participants and what percentage of female participants reported childhood sexual abuse?
A)5% male - 35% female
B)15% male - 20% female
C)25% male - 75% female
D)20% male - 50% female
E)10% male - 15% female
Q2) Gina has disclosed to her first grade teacher that her grandfather sexually abused her.According to the rules of evidence and courtroom accommodations made for children,Gina's teacher would likely be considered a __________________ and
A)biased witness; not called to testify
B)hearsay witness; called to testify
C)disclosure witness; called to testify
D)hearsay witness; not called to testify
E)disclosure witness; not called to testify
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Chapter 6: B: Child Victims and Witnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is Criterion-Based Content Analysis (CBCA)? Specify the assumption that underlies the CBCA and identify two potential problems with this method.
Q2) Discuss the prevailing view regarding child witnesses from the 1600-1900s.Identify the four factors outlined by Ceci and Bruck (1993)that led to the renewed interest in child witnesses.
Q3) What are the five criteria identified by Lindsay and Read (1995)that should be considered when determining the veracity of a recovered memory?
Q4) Distinguish between the incidence and the prevalence of child maltreatment.Provide an example of each.
Q5) Describe the four categories of child maltreatment defined by the Child Maltreatment Section (CMS)of Health Canada.
Q6) Name and briefly explain the first five steps of the Step-Wise Interview.
Q7) Describe the changes made to the competency inquiry with the enactment of Bill C-2 (2006).
Q8) A number of changes were made to improve courtroom accommodations for child witnesses in Canada.List four of these changes.
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Chapter 7: A: Juries: Fact Finders
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which research method is able to establish cause-and-effect relationships?
A)archives
B)simulation studies
C)post-trial interviews
D)field studies
E)all of the above
Q2) Fred Wilson violated his probation order.According to your text,Mr.Wilson would be charged with a(n)___________ offence and his trial would likely be heard by
A)summary offence/judge only
B)summary offence/judge and jury
C)indic offence/judge only
D)indic offence/judge and jury
E)hybrid offence/judge only
Q3) In Canada,juries in criminal trials must reach a ___________ verdict.
A)majority
B)unanimous
C)51% majority
D)hung
E)75% majority
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Chapter 7: B: Juries: Fact Finders
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four functions of a jury.
Q2) List two proposed advantages and two proposed disadvantages associated with the asking of questions by jurors as a courtroom comprehension aid.
Q3) In the context of jury decision making,distinguish between the terms polarization,leniency bias,and black sheep effect.
Q4) Besides the method of placing a ban on pretrial publicity,name and explain two other methods that courts can employ to increase the likelihood of jury impartiality.
Q5) In the context of jury decision making,identify two defendant characteristics that are most likely to result in guilty verdicts,and briefly explain each.
Q6) List four proposed reforms for judges' instructions aimed at facilitating juror understanding.
Q7) What is meant by the juror characteristic of impartiality? What are two of the issues surrounding impartiality?
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16
Chapter 8: A: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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52 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the critical elements that emerged from the McNaughton verdict?
A)A defendant must be found to be suffering from a disease of the mind
B)A defendant must not know the quality of the act he/she is performing
C)A defendant must not know that what he/she is doing is wrong
D)A defendant must be able to understand the purpose of criminal proceedings
E)The defendant must not know the nature of the act he/she is performing
Q2) According to Bill C-30,the entire length of detention that a defendant can be held in custody before the fitness evaluation is completed cannot exceed:
A)24 hours
B)5 days
C)30 days
D)60 days
E)none of the above
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17
Chapter 8: B: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the current insanity defence in Canada? According to the Canadian Criminal Code,what are the criteria for insanity? Assuming you are the Crown prosecutor,identify two situations in which you may raise the issue of insanity.
Q2) You have been hired by a Canadian lawyer to assess a defendant for competency to stand trial.As a first step,you have decided to conduct a competency screener.Describe the screener that you will use and justify your choice.
Q3) What are the four main objectives of mental health courts?
Q4) In the context of a defendant found NCRMD,what are the four main criteria considered by courts and review boards when deciding a disposition? Explain the term capping and specify the consequence of capping for mentally ill offenders with respect to their dispositions.
Q5) Name two of the three changes to legislation resulting from Brian's Law (Bill 68).
Q6) Peter is on trial for sexual assault.He claims he was in a blackout state due to consumption of two bottles of whisky.Based on the information in your text on intoxication and automatism,what type of disposition would Peter most likely get from a judge and why?
Q7) What are the three dispositions that can be made following a finding of NCRMD?
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Chapter 9: A: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Sample Questions
Q1) For offences included in the Canadian Criminal Code,the death penalty was formally abolished in:
A)1945
B)1962
C)1976
D)1985
E)1999
Q2) Sentencing an offender with the goal of reducing the probability that members of the community will violate the law is known as:
A)restorative justice
B)reparative justice
C)specific deterrence
D)systematic disparity
E)general deterrence
Q3) In the study conducted by McFatter (1986),sentencing disparity:
A)resulted mostly from unsystematic sources
B)resulted mostly from systematic sources
C)did not exist
D)only existed for inexperienced judges
E)was only evident in cases involving murder and rape
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Chapter 9: B: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify and describe the four major types of parole in Canada.
Q2) Identify and describe the five main sentencing options utilized in Canada.
Q3) What is unwarranted sentencing disparity? List and describe the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity.
Q4) Define the need principle,risk principle,and responsivity principle.
Q5) Provide at least six of the factors that are available to be considered when the Parole Board of Canada assesses risk and parole options.
Q6) Discuss the difference in success rates and parole failures across offenders released on day and full parole relative to those granted statutory release.
Q7) What is the Aboriginal overrepresentation problem in Canadian corrections? What factors contribute to this overrepresentation,and what measures have been taken in Canada to reduce this problem?
Q8) State the fundamental principle of sentencing as defined in Canada's Criminal Code.In addition,specify four other principles of sentencing.
Q9) Many purposes of sentencing exist,including specific and general deterrence.State four additional purposes of sentencing.
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Chapter 10: A: Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a study of desistence within a small group of high-risk violent offenders,Haggard,Gumpert,and Grann (2001)reported which of the following as a factor associated with desistance?
A)Social avoidance
B)S employment
C)More than three prior convictions
D)A good marriage
E)Older age
Q2) Which of the following characteristics is not associated with structured professional judgment?
A)It may include both static and dynamic risk factors.
B)A person's ultimate risk level is determined by specific cut-off scores.
C)It is guided by predetermined list of risk factors.
D)It may be conducted by law enforcement officers.
E)It is supported by Canadian researchers.
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21
Chapter 10: B: Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify and explain the three main weaknesses of research on the prediction of violence.
Q2) Within the context of violence prediction,distinguish between a static risk factor,a dynamic risk factor,and a protective factor.Provide an example of each.
Q3) Using structured professional judgment,you wish to predict an offender's risk of violent recidivism (and not general recidivism).Of the assessment instruments described in your textbook,which one would you likely use? Provide a brief description of your chosen instrument.
Q4) Name and define the two components of the risk assessment process.
Q5) What is desistance and why is age related to declines in criminal offending? What interpersonal moderators also have been proposed to aid in the transition between criminal offending and desistance?
Q6) What are the three types of judgment errors or biases that clinicians make when assessing risk?
Q7) Identify and explain the three historical risk factors for violent/criminal behaviour discussed in your text.Be as specific as possible.
Q8) Name at least four ways in which female offenders differ from male offenders.
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Chapter 11: A: Psychopaths
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quayle (2008)provided several recommendations for interviewing and interrogating a psychopathic suspect,including all of the following except:
A)Show liking or admiration
B)Use a lot of bluffs
C)Avoid criticism
D)Avoid conveying emotions
E)Convey experience and confidence
Q2) In a study Caldwell et al.(2006)examining treatment outcomes in youth with high scores on the Psychopathy Checklist: Youth Version,the youth who received treatment in a correctional centre had:
A)lower reoffending rates than youth treated in a treatment centre
B)lower violent reoffending rates than youth treated in a treatment centre
C)twice the reoffending rates of youth treated in a treatment centre
D)twice the violent reoffending rates of youth treated in a treatment centre
E)the rates of reoffending were the same for both groups of youth
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Chapter 11: B: Psychopaths
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss several of the reservations that have been raised concerning applying the label of psychopath to children and adults,and what research has found regarding these concerns.
Q2) Define psychopathy,Antisocial Personality Disorder,and sociopathy and give three examples of differences between these disorders.
Q3) Explain who Clifford Olson is and why he is famous.What changes have been made to Canadian legislation as a result of his request?
Q4) Name and describe the most widely used assessment tool for measuring psychopathic traits in adults.
Q5) Explain why most researchers believe psychopaths cannot be treated.Describe one well-known study that lends support for this notion.
Q6) Describe the cognitive and affective models of psychopathy in terms of the two predominant theories about the development of psychopathy.
Q7) Explain how psychopaths differ from nonpsychopaths and more specifically how psychopaths' use of violence differs from nonpychopathic offenders.
Q8) Identify the ten myths associated with psychopathy.
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Chapter 12: A: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following therapy considers the influence of the family,peers,school,neighbourhood,and community environment:
A)parent training
B)cognitive training
C)dual systems approach
D)social-skills training
E)multisystemic therapy
Q2) Which of the following risk assessment measures is not used with young offenders in Canada?
A)HCR-20
B)ORAMS
C)SAVRY
D)VRAG
E)ACDI
Q3) What is the ratio of males to females likely to have externalizing difficulties?
A)10:1
B)5:1
C)2:1
D)20:1
E)30:1
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Chapter 12: B: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define "resilient" and identify four ways that protective factors are effective.
Q2) Provide three criticisms of the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA).
Q3) What is the relationship between youth gang involvement and delinquency? Discuss using research to back up your points.
Q4) Describe the Offender Risk Assessment and Management System,including the two scales that are used within this system to assess risk with young offenders.
Q5) State three main objectives of the Youth Criminal Justice Act.
Q6) Compare the key changes to the youth criminal justice system associated with the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA),the Young Offenders Act (YOA)and the Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA).
Q7) Describe primary,secondary,and tertiary intervention strategies.Describe an example of each strategy.
Q8) What is the difference between reactive aggression and proactive aggression? Which is related to an earlier onset of problems?
Q9) Three childhood psychiatric diagnoses occur with some frequency in young offenders.Identify the three disorders,describe each,and discuss the relationship between these disorders (i.e.,is diagnosis with one type likely to result in the diagnosis with another?).
Page 26
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Chapter 13: A: Intimate Partner Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person getting arrested for domestic violence is an example of:
A)external punishment
B)observational punishment
C)aversive instigator
D)incentive instigator
E)self-punishment
Q2) A person feeling remorse for engaging in violence is an example of what type of consequence in social learning theory?
A)external punishment
B)observational punishment
C)aversive instigator
D)incentive instigator
E)self-punishment
Q3) Which of the following statements is false concerning domestic violence?
A)Domestic violence is a common problem.
B)Only heterosexual women get battered.
C)Alcohol and/or drugs do not cause people to act aggressively.
D)The most dangerous time for a battered spouse is after separation.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 13: B: Intimate Partner Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Holtzworth-Munroe and Stuart (1994)developed a typology of male batterers based on the severity of violence,generality of violence,and personality disorder characteristics.Name and define each of the three types of batterers.
Q2) Identify and explain the two most common forms of intervention for male batterers.According to the meta-analysis conducted by Babcock,Green,and Robie (2004),which is the most effective in terms of recidivism?
Q3) According to Rosenfeld (2004),what variables are significantly related to violence amongst stalkers (relative to those who pose a low risk of behaving violently)? What two factors are specifically associated with the greatest risk for continuing stalking behaviour after release from prison?
Q4) Kropp,Hart,and Lyon (2002)have formulated a typology that classifies stalkers into four categories based on their relationships with their victims.Name and describe the key characteristics of all four categories.
Q5) The National Family Violence Prevention Programs developed by the Correctional Service of Canada contain 6 components.Name and briefly describe each of these,and discuss which component has been associated with the best treatment outcomes in research.
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Chapter 14: A: Sexual Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following reasons have been found concerning why child victims do not report being sexually abused except:
A)They are afraid of what will happen to them or their parents.
B)They believe they are to blame for the abuse.
C)They are not aware that what was happening was wrong.
D)They are protecting a family member.
E)They don't think they will be believed.
Q2) Jerome is a sexual offender who preys on female children,often when his adult relationships fail.He often is drunk when the offending happens and feels regret for his actions after the fact.What type of sexual offender is Jerome according to Groth's typology?
A)Immature rapist
B)Regressed child molester
C)Fixated child molester
D)Impulsive rapist
E)Exploitative rapist
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Chapter 14: B: Sexual Offenders
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify and discuss the five main myths associated with sexual assault discussed in your text,including facts that challenge these false beliefs.
Q2) Knight and Prentky (1990)developed the Revised Rapist Typology (MTC: R3)which consists of five primary subtypes of rapists.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's motivational differences.
Q3) According to Finkelhor's (1984)theory of child molesting,what are the four preconditions in order for sexual abuse to occur?
Q4) Groth (1979)proposed a threefold rapist typology.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's goals,the amount of force used,and the primary motivations.
Q5) List the four types of female sexual offenders identified by Atkinson (1996).Describe each in terms of their offending behaviour and their backgrounds.
Q6) Describe the primary method used to assess deviant sexual interests,as well as two approaches used to treat deviant sexual interests.
Q7) List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.
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Page 31
Chapter 15: A: Homicidal Offenders
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50 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spencer wants to kill his wife.Which of the following is most likely true concerning this type of homicide according to the research discussed in your text?
A)He is more likely to beat or strangle her than shoot her.
B)He is not likely to kill himself after the homicide.
C)He is likely to thoroughly plan the homicide.
D)He will not use excessive force as he just wants her dead.
E)He is not likely to feel any remorse.
Q2) Jared believes that he is going to lose his job,his family will be unable to afford to live their current lifestyle,doesn't see another way out,and doesn't want his family to suffer.After a particularly bad day at work,he goes home,kills his wife and 3 children,and then shoots himself.What type of murderer would Jared most accurately be classified as?
A)Instrumental killer
B)Despondent non-hostile killer
C)Reactive killer
D)Hostile accusatory killer
E)Goal oriented killer
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Page 32
Chapter 15: B: Homicidal Offenders
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10 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the two types of familicide murderers described by Wilson,Daly,and Daniele (1995),and discuss the features of both.
Q2) List four of the six key differences that were identified by Hickey (2006)between female and male serial murderers.
Q3) Distinguish between a reactive and an instrumental homicide.
Q4) What are the four main types of homicide recognized by Canadian criminal law? Discuss the features of each including the definitions and penalties.
Q5) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers.Describe the four major types of serial murderers and their motivations.
Q6) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers,with one being a hedonistic serial murderer.What motivates a hedonistic serial murderer? List the three subtypes of the hedonistic serial murderer and distinguish between them.
Q7) Describe the General Aggression Model (GAM),including the inputs,the internal states they influence,and behavioural outcomes.
Q8) Differentiate between filicide,familicide,femicide,and mariticide.
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