CHAPTER 1 1) According to the Food and Health Survey, what is the leading factor that influences food purchases among American consumers? A) Healthfulness B) Convenience C) Price D) Taste
2)
Over the past several decades, the consumption of fluid milk in the United States has A) increased. B) decreased. C) remained the same.
3) Studies indicate an association between TV advertising of foods and drinks and _____, especially in the United States. A) dollars spent at restaurants B) purchase of more nutritious products from grocery stores C) the prevalence ofchildhood obesity D) the number of mealseaten at home
4)
Which of the following trends has a negative effect on American food habits?
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A) More offerings of chicken and fish in restaurants as alternatives to beef B) Social changes that are leading to a general time shortage for many of us C) The variety of new, low-fat products in the grocery store D) Widespread availability of information on the nutritional content of fast foods
5) Which of the following terms refers to a state in which a person is satisfied after eating and there is no further desire to eat? A) Satiety B) Hunger C) Appetite D) Saturation
6) Which of the following terms describes physiological (internal) influences that encourage us to find and eat food? A) Appetite B) Hunger C) Satiety D) Saturation
7) Which of the following terms describes psychological (external) influences that encourage us to find and eat food? A) Appetite B) Hunger C) Satiety D) Saturation
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8) According to surveys from the United States Department of Agriculture, what is the most commonly consumed vegetable in the United States? A) Tomatoes B) Potatoes C) Lettuce D) Corn
9)
"Nutrition"
is
A) the science that links foods to health and disease. B) the study of diet and disease patterns among various populations. C) the use of dietary supplements to cure diseases. D) the practice of eating only healthy foods.
10)
The essential nutrients A) must be consumed at every meal. B) are required for infants but not adults. C) can be made in the body when they are needed. D) cannot be made by the body and therefore must be consumed to maintain health.
11)
Diabetes is a group of diseases characterized by
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A) high blood sugar. B) uncontrolled cell growth. C) high blood pressure. D) high levels of blood lipids.
12)
Cancer is a group of diseases characterized by A) high blood sugar. B) uncontrolled cell growth. C) high blood pressure. D) high levels of blood lipids.
13)
Osteoporosis is a condition of compromised ______ health. A) cardiovascular B) bone C) kidney D) brain
14)
Hypertension
is the medical term that refers to
A) high blood pressure. B) high blood sugar. C) high blood lipids. D) high muscle tone.
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15) Which of the following is the leading nutrition-related cause of death in the United States? A) Heart disease B) Cancer C) Diabetes D) Pneumonia
16)
Over the past 40 years, rates of ______ have declined among American adults. A) deaths of cardiovascular disease B) cancer screenings C) obesity D) diabetes
17)
Which of the following is an essential nutrient? A) Alcohol B) Carbohydrates C) Phytochemicals D) Zoochemicals
18) Which of the following nutrients can be broken down by human enzymes to yield energy? A) Lipids B) Fiber C) Vitamins D) Minerals
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19)
The main function of carbohydrates is to A) provide energy. B) promote growth and development. C) regulate body processes. D) prevent cancer.
20)
Carbohydrates provide ______ kcal per gram. A) 4 B) 7 C) 9 D) 0
21)
Which class of nutrients comprises approximately 60% of body weight? A) Water B) Protein C) Carbohydrate D) Minerals
22)
Fiber and starch belong to the class of nutrients known as A) carbohydrates. B) protein. C) lipids. D) minerals.
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23) Which of the following are substances in plant foods that cannot be digested in the stomach or small intestine? A) Starch B) Disaccharides C) Dietary fiber D) Simple sugars
24)
Which of the following is characteristic of lipids? A) Supplies 4 kcal per gram B) Adds structural strength to bones and muscles C) Supplies a concentrated form of fuel for the body D) Adds sweetness to food
25)
Protein A) is a major component of body structures. B) supplies 9 kcal per gram. C) is the body's main source of fuel during physical activity. D) functions as a solvent.
26)
Which of the following is a characteristic of vitamins? A) Provide energy B) Become structural components of the body C) Enable chemical processes in the body D) Made in sufficient quantities by the body
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27)
Minerals can A) provide energy. B) be destroyed during cooking. C) be degraded by the body. D) become part of body structures.
28)
Vitamins and minerals ______ be broken down to provide energy. A) cannot B) can
29)
Which of the following is a function of water? A) Provides energy B) Transports nutrients and wastes C) Structural component of bone D) Prevents oxidative damage to cell membranes
30)
Which of the following nutrients provide no calories? A) Alcohol B) Proteins C) Carbohydrates D) Vitamins
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31) What substances, present in fruits and vegetables, provide significant health benefits such as reducing the risk of cancer? A) Phytochemicals B) Beta blockers C) Deoxidizers D) Free radicals
32)
Which of the following is an example of a phytochemical? A) Carotenoids B) Cholesterol C) Fiber D) Enzymes
33)
A kilocalorie is a measure of A) heat energy. B) fat in food. C) nutrients in food. D) sugar and fat in food.
34)
Per gram, which of the following provides the most energy?
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A) Carbohydrates B) Proteins C) Alcohol D) Fats
35)
Which of the following is true about the energy content of nutrients? A) Lipids supply 7 kcal per gram. B) Carbohydrates and proteins supply 4 kcal per gram. C) Alcohol supplies 9 kcal per gram. D) Lipids and alcohol supply 9 kcal per gram.
36)
Which of the following includes all energy-yielding substances? A) Carbohydrates, lipids, protein, water B) Vitamins, minerals, carbohydrates, lipids, protein C) Alcohol, carbohydrates, lipids, protein D) Carbohydrates, lipids, protein, vitamins, minerals, water
37)
Which of the following is the largest unit of measurement? A) Centigram B) Milligram C) Microgram D) Kilogram
38)
Which of the following is the smallest unit of measurement?
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A) Centigram B) Milligram C) Microgram D) Kilogram
39) A serving of ranch salad dressing has 5 grams of fat. How many calories come from fat in 1 serving of ranch salad dressing? A) 5 kcal B) 20 kcal C) 25 kcal D) 45 kcal
40) A recipe calls for 140 grams of chicken breast. This is equivalent to ______ ounces of chicken breast. A) 5 B) 3920 C) 8.75 D) 1.4
41) One cup of chocolate milk contains 15 grams of carbohydrates, 8 grams of fat, and 8 grams of protein. This cup of chocolate milk supplies ______ kcal. A) 164 B) 124 C) 279 D) 31
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42) Penelope tracked her food and beverage intake for three days using NutritionCalc Plus. Her analysis showed an average intake of 1760 kcal and 42 grams of fat per day. According to her data, her usual diet provides approximately A) 21% of kcal from fat. B) 2% of kcal from fat. C) 10% of kcal from fat. D) 17% of kcal from fat.
43)
Pat purchases a 2-liter bottle of root beer. This would be approximately A) 2 quarts. B) 4 cups. C) 2 gallons. D) 2 pints.
44) A meal consisting of a cheeseburger, large fries, and a chocolate shake provides a total of 1120 kcal. If 40% of total kcal in this meal come from fat, how many grams of fat are in this meal? A) 64 grams B) 112 grams C) 448 grams D) 50 grams
45) A serving of breakfast cereal provides 160 total calories and 8 grams of added sugars. Added sugars provide ______ of total kcal in this breakfast cereal.
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A) 45% B) 20% C) 5% D) 35%
46)
Which of the following most accurately describes the term epidemiology? A) A test made to examine the validity of an educated guess B) An educated guess by a scientist to explain a phenomenon C) A study of how disease rates vary among different population groups D) An explanation for a phenomenon that has numerous lines of evidence to support it
47) In the _____ experimental design, neither the participants nor the researchers are aware of each participant’s assignment (test or placebo) or the outcome of the study until it is completed. A) uncontrolled B) case-control C) double-blind D) single-blind
48)
Which of the following accurately describes the term hypothesis? A) A test made to examine the validity of an educated guess B) An educated guess by a scientist to explain a phenomenon C) A study of how disease rates vary among different population groups D) An explanation for a phenomenon that has numerous lines of evidence to support it
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49) When researchers complete a research study and prepare a manuscript describing their work for publication, they seek out an evaluation of work by professionals of similar competence to themselves. This helps to ensure that the work is objective and of high quality. This evaluation process is known as A) compentency check. B) performance review. C) independent critique. D) peer review.
50) A ______ is generally a fake medicine used to disguise the identify of the treatments in an experiment. A) placebo B) control C) case D) hypothesis
51) A statistical examination that pools the data from multiple research studies to determine overall trends is called a A) meta-analysis. B) randomized controlled trial. C) cohort study. D) peer review.
52) The Nurses' Health Study includes more than 280,000 participants. When participants enrolled in the study, they agreed to have their lifestyle behaviors and health parameters assessed repeatedly over the coming years so that researchers could explore relationships between lifestyle and health risks. The Nurses' Health Study is a ______ cohort study.
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A) prospective B) retrospective
53)
The most rigorous type of controlled experiment is a A) Meta-analysis B) Randomized controlled trial C) Cohort study D) Case-control study
54) According to the Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences, ______ of caloriesshould come from carbohydrates. A) 20% to 35% B) 45% to 65% C) 10% to 35%
55) According to the Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences, ______ of caloriesshould come from protein. A) 20% to 35% B) 45% to 65% C) 10% to 35%
56) According to the Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences, ______ of caloriesshould come from fat.
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A) 20% to 35% B) 45% to 65% C) 10% to 35%
57)
An overarching goal of Healthy People 2030 is to A) help people live free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature death. B) implement a universal health care system. C) set standards for nutrient intakes in the United States. D) develop policies that promote physical activity among Americans of all ages.
58)
Which of the following is true about the North American dietary pattern? A) Most of our protein comes from plant sources. B) Approximately half of our carbohydrates come from simple sugars. C) Most of our fats come from plant sources. D) Our dietary fiber intake is excessive.
59)
On average, Americans consume approximately ______% of total calories as fat. A) 34 B) 22 C) 28 D) 55
60)
In the United States, approximately ______ of adults are overweight or obese.
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A) one-quarter B) one-third C) one-half D) two-thirds
61)
A nutrition-related objective from Healthy People 2030 is to A) reduce the proportion of households that experience food insecurity. B) increase the consumption of added sugars. C) increase the consumption of sodium. D) reduce the proportion of adults who are at a healthy weight.
62)
To reduce their risk formany chronic diseases, Americans should limit their intakes of A) saturated fats. B) whole grains. C) phytochemicals. D) carbonated water.
63)
Which of the following individuals is engaging in binge drinking? A) A woman who drinks two 12-fl oz cans of beer while eating steamed crabs. B) A man who drinks four shots of whiskey at a bachelor party. C) A woman who drinks three 5-fl oz glasses of wine at a cocktail party. D) A man who drinks a six-pack of 12-fl oz bottles of beer at a cookout.
64) Of all the alcohol sources, ______ often is singled out as the best choice because of the added bonus of the many phytochemicals present. Version 1
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A) red wine B) wine coolers C) light beer D) hard cider
65)
An 80-proof alcoholic beverage contains ______ percent alcohol. A) 20 B) 40 C) 80 D) 100
66) Which of the following are reasons older adults are more susceptible to the damaging effects of alcohol? A) Older adults tend to have lower lean body mass and lower body water content. B) The rate of alcohol metabolism decreases with age. C) Alcohol can interact with medications in the body. D) All of these choices are correct.
67)
Where is the chief site of alcohol metabolism? A) Brain B) Stomach C) Liver D) Kidneys
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68)
A person with a deficiency of alcohol dehydrogenase would A) become intoxicated at low levels of alcohol intake. B) have a high tolerance for alcohol. C) be able to pass a breathalyzer test even with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 or
higher. D) feel ill due to an accumulation of acetaldehyde in the blood.
69) Studies suggestthat about ______ of a person’s risk for developing alcohol use disorders isgenetic. A) 10% B) 25% C) 50% D) 95%
70) The disease characterized by fatty infiltration of the liver and replacement of functioning liver cells with fibrous connective tissue is known as A) cirrhosis. B) liver cancer. C) hepatitis. D) Crohn's disease.
71) The Dietary Guidelines recommends that adults of legal drinking age can choose not to drink, or to drink in moderation by limiting intake to _____ drink(s) or less in a day for men or _____ drink(s) or less in a day for women, on days when alcohol is consumed.
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A) 1; 0 B) 2; 1 C) 3; 2 D) 4; 3
72)
A warning sign or symptom of alcohol poisoning is A) semiconsciousness or unconsciousness. B) rapid breathing. C) skin that is hot to the touch. D) insomnia.
73)
All of the essential nutrients function as regulators of body processes. ⊚ ⊚
74)
true false
Water is one of the six classes of essential nutrients. ⊚ ⊚
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CHAPTER 4 1)
The red blood cells and brain are two body tissues that derive most of their energy from A) fat. B) protein. C) carbohydrate. D) iron.
2) The process that plants use to make glucose from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of the sun's heat and light is called A) biosynthesis. B) anabolism. C) photosynthesis. D) glycogenesis.
3) Photosynthesis occurs when 6 molecules of carbon dioxide combine with 6 molecules of water using energy from the sun to form _______ molecule(s) of glucose and release _______ molecule(s) of oxygen into the air. A) 1; 1 B) 1; 6 C) 6; 1 D) 6; 6
4)
The major storage sites for glycogen are the
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A) muscles and liver. B) kidney and muscles. C) liver and kidney. D) liver and pancreas.
5)
Glycogen is
A) a highly branched carbohydrate that serves as the storage form of glucose in humans. B) carbohydrates containing many glucose units that are stored in adipose cells. C) a six-carbon monosaccharide that usually exists in a ring form that is closely related to glucose. D) a digestible, straight-chain resistant starch composed of glucose units.
6)
Sucrose is also known as A) dextrose. B) fruit sugar. C) milk sugar. D) table sugar.
7)
Glucose is also known as A) sucrolose. B) sorbitol. C) xylitol. D) dextrose.
8)
The term simple carbohydratesrefers to
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A) starch. B) monosaccharides and disaccharides. C) fiber. D) polysaccharides.
9)
_______ is the major monosaccharide found in the body. A) Fructose B) Glucose C) Lactose D) Sucrose
10)
The monosaccharides important in nutrition are fructose, glucose, and A) lactose. B) sucrose. C) galactose. D) maltose.
11)
Which of the following combinations of monosaccharides is true? A) Glucose and glucose form sucrose. B) Glucose and fructose form lactose. C) Glucose and galactose form lactose. D) Glucose and galactose form maltose.
12)
The monosaccharides important in nutrition are
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A) glucose, fructose, and lactose. B) fructose, glucose, and galactose. C) fructose, glucose, and maltose. D) sucrose, fructose, and glucose.
13)
The scientific name for milk sugar is A) maltose. B) glucose. C) mannose. D) lactose.
14)
A disaccharide is formed by the chemical bonding of A) two monosaccharides. B) two polysaccharides. C) one monosaccharide and one polysaccharide. D) two oligosaccharides.
15)
The disaccharides important in nutrition are sucrose, maltose, and A) lactose. B) fructose. C) dextrose. D) galactose.
16)
Which of the following is a disaccharide?
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A) Galactose B) Fructose C) Lactose D) Glucose
17)
Amylose is A) a digestible, straight-chain type of starch composed of glucose units. B) an indigestible branched-chain type of starch composed of glucose units. C) a group of polysaccharides that are found in plant cell walls. D) an indigestible dietary fiber sequestered in plant walls.
18)
The two forms of starch found in food are A) amylose and amylopectin. B) maltose and mannose. C) glycogen and glucagon. D) soluble and insoluble.
19)
Dietary fibers primarily are A) polysaccharides. B) polypeptides. C) disaccharides. D) monosaccharides.
20)
Which of the following is incorrect about dietary fibers?
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A) They are mostly polysaccharides. B) The bonds between the sugar units cannot be broken by human digestive enzymes. C) They cannot be absorbed by the small intestine. D) They are absorbed in the large intestine.
21) Which of the following is categorized as a soluble, viscous, and readily fermentable fiber? A) Pectin B) Cellulose C) Hemicellulose D) Lignin
22) Which of the following is categorized as an indigestible dietary fiber that is sequestered in plant walls? A) Pectin B) Cellulose C) Resistant starch D) Psyllium
23)
Soluble fibers A) increase stool size significantly. B) are not readily fermented by intestinal bacteria. C) cannot dissolve in water. D) helpto lower blood cholesterol.
24)
Fiber added to foodsthat has been shown to provide healthbenefits is called
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A) phytofiber. B) functional fiber. C) dietary fiber. D) amylopectin.
25)
The natural alternative sweetener derived from a South American plant is called A) aspartame (Equal®). B) saccharin (Sweet-n-Low®). C) sucralose (Splenda®). D) stevia (Sweet Leaf®, Truvia®).
26) Food manufacturers prefer to use ______ as a sweetener because it is easy to transport, has good shelf-stability, is low cost, and improves food properties. A) table sugar B) high-fructose corn syrup C) sucralose (Splenda®) D) honey
27)
Sucralose (Splenda®) is made by adding A) lactose to sucrose. B) chlorines to sucrose. C) sucrose to galactose. D) sucrose to glucose.
28)
Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) should avoid
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A) stevia. B) aspartame. C) high fructose corn syrup. D) saccharin.
29)
Which section of MyPlate is the least significant source of carbohydrate? A) Grains B) Vegetables C) Fruits D) Protein E) Dairy
30)
Which of the following breakfast options is the highest in carbohydrate?
A) Grapefruit half, 2 fried eggs, 3 bacon slices, 1 slice of toast with butter, coffee B) English muffin with jelly, 8 ounces orange juice, 2 cups Cream of Wheat with 2 tablespoons sugar, 1 cup whole milk C) Coffee, 8 ounces orange juice, 1/2 cup fresh blueberries, 8 ounces nonfat yogurt D) 1 cup whole milk, 2 ounces sausage, 2 fried eggs, 1 slice of toast with butter
31)
Which of the following has the most starch? A) 1 medium orange B) 1 cup of kidney beans C) 8 fluid ounces of milk D) 4 ounces of meat
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32) The Dietary Guidelines recommend consuming ______ servings of whole grainsper day for adults.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 9
33)
Which of the following foods is the best source of insoluble fiber? A) Kidney beans B) English muffins made with enriched flour C) Broccoli D) Corn flake-type cereal
34)
Which of the following foods is the best source of soluble fiber? A) Broccoli B) Kidney beans C) Whole wheat bread D) Sunflower seeds
35)
The food components that yield the highest percentage of calories from carbohydrates are A) corn flake-type cereal, rice, bread, and noodles. B) peas, broccoli, oatmeal, dry beans and other legumes. C) cream pies, French fries, and fat-free milk. D) table sugar, honey, jam, jelly, and fruit.
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36)
Which of the following is a major source of lactose? A) Milk B) Broccoli C) Apples D) Honey
37)
Major fructose sources include A) milk and cheese. B) fruits and sweetened beverages. C) fruits and vegetables. D) nuts and seeds.
38)
Of the following, which is a major source of sucrose? A) Alcohol B) Fruits C) Grains D) Sugar cane
39) Plant-based “milks,” such as _______, may contain calcium, but are not included as part of the MyPlate Dairy group because their overall nutritional content is not similar to dairy milk. A) coconut oil B) kumbacha C) fortified soy beverages D) coconut milk
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40) Polysaccharides that cannot be digested by human digestive enzymes, and therefore cannot be absorbed, are called A) amylose. B) fiber. C) glycogen. D) starch.
41) ______ is a condition in which symptoms such as abdominal gas and bloating appear as a result of severe lactose maldigestion. A) Milk allergy B) Celiac disease C) Lactose intolerance D) Galactosemia
42)
After absorption, galactose is converted to ________ in the liver. A) glucose B) fructose C) glycogen D) lactose
43)
Dietary fiber may play a key role in the prevention of which type of cancer? A) Colon B) Liver C) Pancreatic D) Stomach
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44)
Starch consists of hundreds and perhaps thousands of which molecule? A) Fructose B) Glycerol C) Glucose D) Galactose
45) Which of the following willmost likely cause symptoms in a person with lactose intolerance? A) Small servings of milk products B) Hard cheeses C) Yogurt containing active cultures D) Milk shakes made with skim milk
46)
The major symptoms of lactose intolerance are A) gas, abdominal pain, and bloating. B) a rash, sneezing, and stuffy nose. C) a headache and chest pain. D) nausea and vomiting.
47)
Lactose intolerance is caused by A) a milk allergy. B) lactase deficiency. C) milk bacteria. D) intestinal bacteria.
48)
Immediately after sugars are absorbed into the blood, they travel to the
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A) kidney. B) heart. C) liver. D) pancreas.
49)
Which of the following is incorrect concerning carbohydrate absorption? A) Monosaccharides can enter the villi. B) End products of carbohydrate digestion are transported through the portal vein to the
liver. C) Maltose is transported through the portal vein to the liver. D) Disaccharides are digested to monosaccharides by enzymes that are attached to intestinal cells.
50)
Glucose is absorbed via ______ absorption. A) passive B) facilitated C) active D) participatory
51)
Amylase is A) an enzyme that digests maltose into two glucose molecules. B) an indigestible disaccharide composed of glucose units. C) an enzyme secreted by the pancreas that digests starch. D) a digestible straight-chain type of starch composed of glucose units.
52)
Which of the following describes the process of starch digestion?
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A) Starch to lactose to galactose B) Starch to maltose to glucose C) Starch to glycogen to glucose D) Starch to sucrose to fructose
53)
What is the fate of disaccharides not digested in the small intestine? A) They pass into the colon and are absorbed. B) They pass into the colon and are fermented by bacteria. C) They are absorbed and converted to glycogen. D) They are absorbed and converted to fat.
54)
Carbohydrate digestion begins in the A) stomach with gastric lipase. B) stomach with peptic amylase. C) mouth with salivary amylase. D) small intestine with pancreatic amylase.
55)
What enzyme is responsible for carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine? A) Salivary amylase B) Bicarbonate C) Pancreatic proteases D) Pancreatic amylase
56)
Which of the following is true about carbohydrate digestion?
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A) Carbohydrate digestion is assisted by cooking, which softens tough skins. B) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach. C) In the small intestine, amylase breaks down fiber to glucose. D) Bile is necessary for carbohydrate digestion.
57)
Carbohydrate digestion begins in the A) mouth. B) stomach. C) small intestine. D) pancreas.
58) When too little dietary carbohydrate is available to meet energy needs, ______ arise as byproducts of partial fat metabolism. A) fatty acids B) ketone bodies C) monosaccharides D) polysaccharides
59)
For which of the following is glucose most critical as an energy source? A) Muscles B) Brain C) Liver D) Heart
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A) Insulin B) Epinephrine C) Glycogen D) Progesterone
61)
Which of the following hormones is released to correct a hypoglycemic state? A) Insulin B) Testosterone C) Estrogen D) Glucagon
62)
Which hormone corrects a hyperglycemic state? A) Insulin B) Epinephrine C) Cortisol D) Glucagon
63)
When insulin is released, it causes A) the liver to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood. B) muscle and fat cells to take up glucose from the blood. C) fat breakdown and release from fat tissue. D) the liver to make glycogen from protein.
64) The glycemic index (GI) is a measurement of how a carbohydrate-containing food raises _____ as compared to a standard (typically glucose or white bread).
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A) blood glucose B) liver glycogen C) insulin released from the pancreas D) glycogen stored in muscle
65)
Adequate intakes of ______ may play a role in the prevention of colon cancer. A) dietary fiber B) saccharin C) high fructose corn syrup D) starch
66) _____ occurs when the cells do not respond to normal insulin signals to take up glucose from the bloodstream. A) Hypoglycemia B) Glycogen load C) Insulin resistance D) Metabolic syndrome
67) A measure of boththe quality (GI value) and quantity (gramsper serving) of a carbohydrate in a meal is called A) glycemic index. B) glycemic load. C) glycated hemoglobin. D) insulin index.
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68)
The main function of glucose is to A) serve as raw material to build tissue. B) work with enzymes to carry out chemical reactions. C) repair tissue. D) supply energy.
69) When blood glucose levels drop below normal, hormones signal the breakdown of ______, which release glucose into the blood. A) stored fat B) liver glycogen C) amino acids from muscle D) ketone bodies
70) The hormone _______ is released from the pancreas when blood glucose is elevated above a normal range. A) glucagon B) insulin C) thyroxine D) glycogen
71)
The main function of glucose is to supply _______ for the body. A) energy B) vitamins C) structure D) hormones
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72)
The top source(s) of added sugars in the U.S. population is(are) A) desserts and sweet snacks. B) sugar-sweetened beverages. C) breakfast cereals and bars. D) coffee and tea.
73)
Examples of refined grain products include A) white potatoes and popcorn. B) white flour, white bread, and white rice. C) bread flour, grits, white rice, and buckwheat. D) oat flour, quinoa, and soy.
74)
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend limiting intake of A) added sugars. B) gluten. C) dietary fiber. D) carbohydrates.
75) What is the RDA and minimum number of grams of carbohydrate, per day, adults mustconsume to avoid ketosis? A) 75 B) 100 C) 130 D) 250
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76)
When eating a high-fiber dietary pattern, one should ______ fluid intake.
A) decrease B) increase C) not change
77) John Fibernugget wants to increase his fiber intake. Which of the following would be the safest way for him do this?
A) Eating enriched grains such as Rice Krispies® and saltines B) Buying bran and fiber supplements to add to his current dietary pattern C) Reading the labels of grain products and buying those labeled wheat flour D) Eating more fruits and vegetables and not removing the edible peels
78) The Adequate Intake (AI) for fiber for an adult man who consumes about 2700 kcal per day is A) 10 grams per day. B) 18 grams per day. C) 25 grams per day. D) 38 grams per day.
79) The Adequate Intake (AI) for fiber for an adult woman who consumes about 1800 kcal per day is A) 10 grams per day. B) 18 grams per day. C) 25 grams per day. D) 38 grams per day.
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80) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends that Americans consume ______ of their total calories from carbohydrates. A) 10% to 25% B) 25% to 45% C) 45% to 65% D) 65% to 75%
81) The Dietary Guidelines recommend limiting added sugars intake to less than ______ of total calories for those 2 years and older.
A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25%
82)
Excessive sugar intake is related to development of dental caries because A) oral bacteria produce acids that dissolve tooth enamel when they metabolize sugars. B) sugar leaches calcium and phosphorus out of teeth. C) salivary amylase dissolves tooth enamel during carbohydrate digestion. D) sugars make the saliva more alkaline, causing damage to tooth enamel.
83)
Which of the following is a true statement about the effects of sugar?
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A) Prolonged exposure of the teeth to simple sugars from snacks and drinks promotes dental caries. B) A high-sugar diet will cause hyperactivity among children. C) A high sugar intake is not problematic as long as the overall diet is high in protein. D) Natural sources of sugar, like honey, are lower in calories than their processed counterparts, such as high fructose corn syrup.
84) The ______ was a landmark, multisite study designed to improve glucose control and prevent the onset of diabetes. Most impressive is that individuals that followed a healthy dietary and physical activity pattern had better glucose control than individuals treated by medication. A) Behavioral Management Trial (BMT) B) Glucose Control Trial (GCT) C) Prediabetes Pilot Program (PPP) D) Diabetes Prevention Program (DPP)
85)
The symptoms of diabetes may occur suddenly and may include A) extreme thirst and excessive urination. B) chronic insomnia. C) sudden weight gain. D) decrease in appetite.
86)
Which of the following describes type 1 diabetes mellitus? A) Arises most commonly in adulthood B) Caused by insensitivity of fat and muscle cells to insulin C) Often associated with obesity D) Caused by lack of insulin production
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87)
Which of the following describes type 2 diabetes mellitus? A) Most often diagnosed during childhood B) Associated with a tendency to develop ketosis C) Sometimes caused by viral infection D) Strongly associated with obesity
88)
The primary goal of dietary management of type 2 diabetes mellitus is to A) achieve a healthy body weight. B) eat regular meals. C) maintain a constant ratio of carbohydrate to protein to fat throughout the day. D) avoid carbohydrates.
89)
Medical conditions related to metabolic syndrome are A) type 1 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and cancer. B) type 1 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and stroke. C) type 2 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and stroke. D) type 2 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and cancer.
90)
Which of the following is not included as one of themetabolic syndrome risk indicators? A) High blood pressure B) High HDL cholesterol C) High glucose D) High triglycerides
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91) Research suggests that dietary fiber is an important substrate for the gut microbiota; therefore, dietary fiber alterations may have an immediate and direct impact on gut microbes. ⊚ ⊚
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