CHAPTER 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The scientific discipline that deals with the processes or functions of living organisms is __________. A) physiology B) anatomic imaging C) regional anatomy D) surface anatomy E) systemic anatomy
2)
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) The coordinated activity of the organ systems is necessary for normal function. B) Because organ systems are so interrelated, dysfunction in one organ system can have profound effects on other systems. C) An organism is any living thing considered as a whole whether composed of one cell such as a bacterium or trillions of cells such as a human. D) Living things are highly organized, and disruption of this organized state can lead to loss of function and death. E) All of the choices are correct.
3) __________ refers to the specific interrelationships among the parts of an organism and how these parts interact to perform functions. A) Organization B) Metabolism C) Responsiveness D) Growth E) Development
4)
Growth refers to an increase in size of all or part of an organism. It can result from
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A) an increase in the number of cells within the organism. B) an increase in the size of individual cells within the organism. C) an increase in the amount of substances surrounding the cells. D) All of the choices are correct. E) None of the choices are correct.
5) __________ includes the changes an organism undergoes through time beginning with fertilization and ending at death. A) Organization B) Metabolism C) Responsiveness D) Reproduction E) Development
6) __________ refers to the ability of an organism to sense changes in the environment and make adjustments needed to help maintain its life. A) Organization B) Metabolism C) Responsiveness D) Growth E) Development
7) Which of these characteristics of life means “The ability to use energy to perform vital functions”? A) Organization B) Metabolism C) Responsiveness D) Growth E) Differentiation
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8) According to the six criteria given as the characteristics of life (organization, metabolism, responsiveness, growth, development, and reproduction), is a virus such as HIV “alive”? A) Yes, it has all 6 characteristics. B) No, it has none of the 6 characteristics. C) Unknown, it has one characteristic (when not including its host cell's components) but does not have the rest.
9)
The chemical level of organization
A) involves the interaction between atoms and the formation of molecules. B) is made up of organ systems that are classified as a unit by function. C) determines the structural and functional characteristics of all organisms. D) Both “involves the interaction between atoms and the formation of molecules” and “determines the structural and functional characteristics of all organisms” are correct. E) None of the choices are correct.
10)
Homeostasis is the condition produced by
A) a resistance to change of any kind. B) the tendency for change in a body variable to be counteracted as soon as the body variable goes past its normal range of values. C) the tendency for continued change in the same direction regardless of current values of a body variable. D) the presence of pathogens. E) All of the choices are correct.
11)
Which of these statements is true of negative feedback?
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A) Negative feedback is important for maintaining homeostasis in the body. B) Negative feedback makes any deviation from a normal value larger. C) Negative feedback occurs when the uterus contracts during childbirth. D) Negative feedback is a very unusual control mechanism in the human body. E) Negative feedback will usually result in illness or other disturbance of normal systems.
12)
Which of these is an example of a positive-feedback mechanism?
A) An increase in blood pressure activates mechanisms that decrease blood pressure. B) Increased amounts of a hormone in the blood cause a decrease in the secretion of that hormone. C) Increased carbon dioxide in the blood increases breathing rate, which decreases carbon dioxide in the blood. D) Increased amounts of fluid in the blood result in increased quantities of urine, which decreases the fluid content of the blood. E) Increased stretch of the uterus causes it to contract, which further increases stretch.
13) A patient with a bleeding ulcer had an elevated heart rate, but his blood pressure was very low and dropping. After the bleeding was stopped and a blood transfusion was given, blood pressure increased. Which of these statements are consistent with these observations? A) Negative-feedback mechanisms are occasionally inadequate without medical intervention. B) The transfusion interrupted a positive-feedback mechanism. C) The transfusion interrupted a negative-feedback mechanism. D) The transfusion was not necessary. E) Both "Negative-feedback mechanisms are occasionally inadequate without medical intervention" and "The transfusion interrupted a positive-feedback mechanism" are correct.
14) Increased carbon dioxide in the blood increases respiration (breathing) rate. Which of these statements would apply to this mechanism?
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A) This is a rare example of a positive-feedback system in the body, because increased carbon dioxide increases respiration rate. B) This is positive feedback because an increased respiration rate increases oxygen in the blood. C) This is negative feedback, because increased respiration rate decreases carbon dioxide in the blood. D) This is negative feedback, because a deviation from normal is enhanced and made larger. E) This is negative feedback, because increased respiration rate decreases oxygen in the blood.
15)
Positive-feedback mechanisms A) are few in a normal healthy individual. B) are used to amplify the effect or response of a system. C) sometimes can create a deviation from homeostasis that leads to death. D) cause the deviation from normal to become even more pronounced. E) All of the choices are correct.
16) The regulation of room temperature by a thermostat is an example of a feedback loop. In this system, a sensor within the thermostat detects a change in temperature below a programmed set point. The thermostat then sends a signal, which turns on the furnace. The furnace heats the room bringing it back up to the programmed temperature. Once the room temperature reaches the programmed set point, the thermostat “turns off” the furnace. Which of the following statements is consistent with the above scenario? A) This scenario is an example of a negative-feedback mechanism. B) The thermostat is the “control center” while the furnace is the “effector.” C) This scenario is different from how negative feedback works in the body because negative feedback in the body maintains a normal range of values instead of one specific set point. D) The “receptor” in this scenario is the temperature sensor within the thermostat. E) All of the choices are correct.
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17) The study of external features, such as bony projections that serve as landmarks to locate deeper structures is called __________. A) systemic anatomy B) regional anatomy C) surface anatomy D) physiology E) anatomic imaging
18) The study of the body’s organization that considers the heart, blood and all of the associated blood vessels as a unit is called __________. A) systemic anatomy B) regional anatomy C) surface anatomy D) physiology E) anatomic imaging
19) The study of the body’s organization by areas (the approach used in most medical schools) is called __________. A) systemic anatomy B) regional anatomy C) surface anatomy D) physiology E) anatomic imaging
20)
In which quadrant of the abdomen is most of the liver usually located?
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A) Left lower quadrant B) Right lower quadrant C) Left upper quadrant D) Right upper quadrant
21)
In which quadrant of the abdomen would the pain of acute appendicitis be felt? A) Left lower quadrant B) Right lower quadrant C) Left upper quadrant D) Right upper quadrant
22)
The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the ___________. A) diaphragm B) mediastinum C) liver D) lungs E) pelvic muscles
23) In which of these cavities would the urinary bladder and internal reproductive organs be found? A) Thoracic B) Pleural C) Pelvic D) Abdominal E) Pericardial
24)
The pericardial cavity
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A) contains the pericardial fluid. B) surrounds the lungs. C) is located between visceral peritoneum and parietal peritoneum. D) is retroperitoneal. E) All of the choices are correct.
25)
The kidneys, adrenal glands, pancreas, and urinary bladder are A) connected to the body wall by mesenteries. B) covered with visceral peritoneum. C) found in the peritoneal cavity. D) retroperitoneal. E) surrounded by peritoneal fluid.
26)
Which of the following cavities contains the liver, stomach, kidneys, and spleen? A) Thoracic cavity B) Pelvic cavity C) Abdominal cavity D) Pericardial cavity E) Pleural cavity
27)
A cavity containing the lungs, but not the heart is the __________ cavity. A) thoracic B) pelvic C) abdominal D) pericardial E) pleural
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28) A cavity enclosed by the bones of the pelvis and containing the urinary bladder is the __________ cavity. A) thoracic B) pelvic C) abdominal D) pericardial E) pleural
29)
A cavity containing the heart, but not the lungs is the __________ cavity. A) thoracic B) pelvic C) abdominal D) pericardial E) pleural
30) A patient arrives at an emergency room with a traumatic pneumothorax after a car accident. In the course of the accident, the patient suffered a penetration wound, which allowed air to fill the space around one of her lungs causing it to collapse. Which serous membranes were likely damaged assuming that the lung itself was not punctured? A) Visceral pleura B) Visceral pericardium C) Parietal pleura D) Visceral peritoneum E) Mesenteries
31) If you make a Jell-O mold that has strawberries suspended in it and whipped cream on top, the strawberries are _____________ while the whipped cream is _________.
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A) superficial; deep B) deep; superficial C) anterior; deep D) prone; deep E) All of the choices are correct.
32) When you scratch a cat's back along its spine, which of the following terms would apply to the skin you are scratching? A) Dorsal, superior, posterior, lateral B) Ventral, inferior, anterior, medial, deep C) Dorsal, superior, medial, superficial D) Ventral, superior, medial, deep E) Ventral, inferior, posterior, lateral
33) Which of the following pairs of terms are synonymous in bipedal animals such as humans but not in quadrupeds (animals that walk on all four feet)? A) Superior and anterior B) Anterior and superficial C) Proximal and superficial D) Anterior and ventral E) Dorsal and lateral
34)
Anatomical position refers to individuals that are A) standing erect, upper limbs at their sides, and palms facing inward. B) standing erect, upper limbs at their sides, and palms facing anterior. C) laying supine, upper limbs at their sides, and palms facing inward. D) laying supine, upper limbs at their sides, and palms facing anterior. E) laying supine, upper limbs extended over their head.
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35)
Which of the sections below separates the body into superior and inferior parts? A) Frontal section B) Sagittal section C) Longitudinal section D) Transverse section E) Oblique section
36)
Which of the sections below separates the body into dorsal and ventral parts? A) Frontal section B) Sagittal section C) Longitudinal section D) Transverse section E) Oblique section
37)
Which of the sections below separates the body into right and left parts? A) Frontal section B) Median plane/(sagittal) section C) Longitudinal section D) Transverse section E) Oblique section
38)
Which of the following is a cut through the long axis of an organ? A) Frontal section B) Sagittal section C) Longitudinal section D) Transverse section E) Oblique section
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39)
Which of the following is a cut through an organ at right angles to the long axis? A) Frontal section B) Sagittal section C) Longitudinal section D) Transverse section E) Oblique section
40)
When a person is in anatomical position, the wrist is _____ to the elbow. A) proximal B) dorsal C) distal D) ventral E) superior
41)
From the anatomical position, the scapula (shoulder blade) is always _____ to the ribs. A) dorsal B) posterior C) superficial D) both dorsal and posterior E) dorsal, posterior, and superficial
42) The guillotine, a medieval instrument for beheading criminals, could be described as passing along a _________ plane through the neck.
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A) frontal B) sagittal C) transverse D) longitudinal E) superior
43) A cut across the long axis of an organ at an angle other than a right angle is described as a(n) __________ section. A) longitudinal B) oblique C) transverse D) cross E) horizontal
44)
The fluid found between serous membrane layers A) is blood. B) reduces friction. C) is secreted by digestive glands. D) appears only after an injury. E) Both “is blood” and “appears only after an injury” are correct.
45)
The mesenteries A) are double-layered membranes. B) anchor some abdominal organs to the body wall. C) are not connected to retroperitoneal organs. D) are continuous with the parietal and visceral peritoneum. E) All of the choices are correct.
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46)
Which of these statements about serous membranes is true?
A) Serous membranes line cavities that open to the outside of the body. B) Visceral serous membranes are in contact with internal organs. C) Retroperitoneal organs are surrounded by both parietal and visceral serous membranes. D) Serous membranes surround the pleural and peritoneal cavities, but not the pericardial cavity. E) All of the choices are correct.
47)
In studying physiology, it is important to recognize that structures within the body are A) static. B) dynamic and mutable. C) fixed. D) unchanging.
48)
Given these structures:
1) Cell 2) Organ 3) Chemical 4) Organ system 5) Organism 6) Tissue Arrange the structures in the correct order from smallest to largest. A) 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 5 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 C) 2, 3, 1, 6, 4, 5 D) 4, 5, 3, 1, 6, 2 E) 4, 3, 1, 6, 2, 5
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49) The basic structural and functional unit of an organism, such as plant or animal, is the __________. A) organ B) cell C) organelle D) organ system E) tissue
50) The statement “a group of cells with similar structure and function plus the extracellular substances located between them” describes __________. A) an organelle B) an organism C) an organ D) an organ system E) a tissue
51)
Which of the following is NOT the correct name of an organ system? A) Integumentary B) Lymphatic C) Cardiovascular D) Muscular E) Hormonal
52) Which of the following statements correctly describes the control center of a homeostatic mechanism?
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A) The control center of a homeostatic mechanism detects changes in the external and internal environment. B) The control center responds to environmental changes by always increasing the body variable. C) The control center receives information from receptors and determines a response to a change in a body variable. D) The control center is usually a muscle or gland that responds to a stimulus. E) All of the choices are correct.
53)
Which statement below describes a physiological process? A) The skin is composed of two major tissue layers, the epidermis and dermis. B) The thoracic cavity contains several organs including the heart and lungs. C) The blood transports nutrients and oxygen to the cells of the body. D) The pancreas is considered part of the digestive and endocrine systems. E) A cell contains cytosol and organelles.
54)
The spleen, thymus, and tonsils are all part of the __________ system. A) digestive B) endocrine C) lymphatic D) reproductive E) respiratory
55)
The major goals of physiology include
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A) understanding and predicting the body’s response to stimuli. B) understanding how the body maintains homeostasis. C) knowing the location of the various organs of the body. D) describing the various components of the eleven organ systems of the body. E) Both “understanding and predicting the body’s response to stimuli” and “understanding how the body maintains homeostasis” are correct.
56)
Understanding the relationship between structure and function allows us to A) investigate and understand disease. B) pursue a career in the health sciences. C) evaluate recommendations from our own medical professionals. D) evaluate the validity of advertisements and reports concerning health. E) All of the choices are correct.
57) If a person is standing erect, facing forward and has her hands on her hips, what movements must she make to assume the anatomical position? A) She needs to lower her upper limbs to her side with her palms facing posteriorly. B) She needs to raise her upper limbs so that they are at right angles to her body. C) She needs to bend her knees slightly and raise her upper limbs so they are above her head. D) She needs to lower her upper limbs to her side with her palms facing anteriorly. E) She does not need to make any movements because she is already in the anatomical position.
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SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
58)
58.1) The region designated by the letter “E” is known as the _________________ region. A) umbilical B) hypogastric C) lumbar D) hypochondriac E) iliac
58.2) The region designated by the letter "H" is known as the _________________ region. A) umbilical B) hypogastric C) lumbar D) hypochondriac E) iliac
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CHAPTER 2 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Chemistry is the scientific discipline that is concerned with cellular composition and the structure of their substances and the reactions they undergo. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) Which of the following is/are responsible for most of the mass of an atom? A) Neutron B) Proton C) Electron D) Both neutron and proton E) Both electron and neutron
3)
The mass number of an element is A) the number of neutrons in the atom. B) the number of protons in the atom. C) the sum of the number of protons plus the number of neutrons. D) the sum of the number of protons plus the number of electrons. E) the sum of the number of neutrons plus the number of electrons.
4)
The chemical notation for magnesium ions is Mg
+2
. The designation +2 indicates that
A) two electrons have been lost. B) two protons have been gained. C) the ion is negatively charged. D) the atomic number is two. E) the number of electrons equals the number of protons.
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5) The smallest particle of an element that has the chemical characteristics of that element is a(n) __________. A) neutron B) proton C) electron D) atom E) electron cloud
6)
Subatomic particles located in the nucleus of an atom are called __________. A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) orbitals E) Both "protons" and "neutrons" are correct.
7) Subatomic particles that possess a negative charge, and move around the nucleus of an atom, are called __________. A) protons B) electrons C) neutrons D) photons E) quarks
8)
The atomic number of an atom is equal to
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A) the number of neutrons in the atom. B) the number of protons in the atom. C) the sum of the number of protons plus the number of neutrons. D) the sum of the number of protons plus the number of electrons. E) the sum of the number of neutrons plus the number of electrons.
9)
The amount of matter in an object is its __________. A) mass B) weight C) atomic number D) element E) ionic charge
10)
The chemical behavior of an atom is largely determined by A) the number of neutrons it has. B) the size of its nucleus. C) the electrons closest to the nucleus. D) the size of neutrons it has. E) its outermost electrons.
11)
Every atom of the element carbon has the same number of A) protons. B) neutrons. C) electrons. D) photons. E) quarks.
12)
Atoms that have gained or lost electrons are called
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A) ions. B) covalents. C) nonpolars. D) molecules. E) neutrons.
13)
After a neutral atom accepts an additional electron, it becomes A) positively charged. B) negatively charged. C) an ion. D) a molecule. E) Both "negatively charged" and "an ion" are correct.
14) Two atoms with the same number of protons and electrons, but different numbers of neutrons, are called __________. A) isotopes B) ions C) electrolytes D) compounds E) Both "ions" and "electrolytes" are correct.
15)
The chemical symbol Ca
2+
indicates that a calcium atom has
A) two protons in its nucleus. B) lost two neutrons. C) gained two protons. D) lost two electrons. E) an atomic number greater than 2.
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16)
If an iron atom (Fe) lost three electrons, what would be the charge of the resulting ion? A) Fe -3 B) Fe +6 C) Fe +1 D) Fe +2 E) Fe +3
17) Atom X has an atomic number of 20 and has a mass number of 40. The number of protons in Atom X is equal to A) 10. B) 20. C) 30. D) 40. E) 60.
18) Atom Y has 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 12 neutrons. What is the atomic number of Atom Y? A) 11 B) 12 C) 22 D) 23 E) 24
19) Y?
Atom Y has 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of Atom
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A) 11 B) 12 C) 22 D) 23 E) 24
20) __________ energy is a form of potential energy resulting from positions and interactions among subatomic particles. A) Chemical B) Mechanical C) Radiant D) Electric E) Heat
21)
Energy A) is the capacity to do work. B) can neither be created nor destroyed. C) is constantly being converted into different forms by the body. D) can be stored in the chemical bonds between molecules/subatomic particles. E) All of the choices are correct.
22) Which of the following analogies does NOT accurately illustrate the energy type it is paired with? A) The cocking back of the trigger on a starter's pistol before a race—Potential energy. B) Picking up speed while rolling down a snow-covered hill in winter—Kinetic energy. C) The stretching of a bungee cord without releasing it—Mechanical energy. D) The spring-up you get when you jump on a pogo stick—Kinetic energy. E) Basketball players bending their knees before they do a layup—Mechanical energy.
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23)
If the products of a chemical reaction contain less potential energy than the reactants, A) energy has been stored in the molecular bonds of the product. B) energy has been released by the breaking of molecular bonds. C) the reaction will be reversible without additional energy input. D) a synthesis reaction is likely to have occurred. E) All of the choices are correct.
24)
The conversion of ATP into ADP A) adds a phosphate group. B) stores energy in the release of an inorganic phosphate group. C) is an example of an exchange reaction. D) is reversible. E) requires the input of energy.
25)
According to the law of conservation of energy, the total energy of the universe is A) constant. B) increasing exponentially. C) decreasing exponentially. D) increasing linearly. E) decreasing linearly.
26) The conversion between different states of energy (e.g., potential energy to kinetic energy)
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A) is not 100% efficient. B) is 100% efficient. C) typically generates heat. D) is not possible, because energy can not change its state. E) Both "is 100% efficient" and "typically generates heat" are correct.
27) When there is an equal sharing of electrons between atoms, the bond that is formed is called A) an ionic bond. B) a polar covalent bond. C) a nonpolar covalent bond. D) a hydrogen bond. E) None of the choices are correct.
28)
Nonpolar molecules A) are created when the bonding atoms share electrons equally between themselves. B) have an asymmetrical electrical charge. C) are also considered ions. D) result from polar covalent bonds. E) All of the choices are correct.
29)
Which of the following statements is FALSE about molecules?
A) In order to be considered a molecule, a structure must be an independent unit. B) All compounds are automatically considered molecules. C) Molecules are formed when two or more atoms chemically combine to form a structure that behaves as an independent unit. D) The atoms that make up a molecule can either be the same or different. E) The atoms that make up a molecule must be chemically bound to one another.
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30)
Which of the following is considered a compound but not a molecule? A) Water (H 20) B) Sodium chloride (NaCl) C) Calcium (Ca 2+) D) Glucose (C 6H 12O 6) E) All of the choices are correct.
31)
Which of the following is NOT considered a compound? A) Water (H 20) B) Sodium chloride (NaCl) C) Hydrogen chloride (HCl) D) A hydrogen molecule (H 2) E) All of the choices are correct.
32) When one atom loses an electron and another atom accepts that electron a(n) __________ bond between the two atoms results. A) covalent B) hydrogen C) ionic D) explosive E) radioactive
33)
Covalent bonds occur when
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A) one atom loses an electron. B) two substances dissociate in water. C) two atoms share electrons. D) ions are formed. E) one atom gains an electron.
34) The unequal, asymmetric sharing of electrons that results in one end (pole) of the molecule having a small electrical charge opposite the other end is called __________ bonding. A) hydrogen B) polar covalent C) double covalent D) ionic E) nonpolar covalent
35)
If a molecule consists of two or more different kinds of atoms, it is a(n) __________. A) atom B) ion C) isotope D) compound E) Both "atom" and "ion" are correct.
36)
Ionic compounds A) are held together by the force of attraction between oppositely charged ions. B) are not considered to be molecules. C) do not have distinct units. D) All of the choices are correct. E) None of the choices are correct.
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37) When the hydrogen bonds that maintain a protein's three-dimensional shape are broken, the protein becomes nonfunctional, and is said to be __________. A) essential B) denatured C) structural D) unsaturated E) saturated
38)
The chemical compound that is represented by the acronym DNA A) contains the sugar deoxyribose. B) has two chains that form a double helix. C) is composed of nucleotides. D) is responsible for controlling cell activities. E) All the choices are correct.
39) Given that sodium bicarbonate dissociates to form Na + and HCO 3 - when mixed with water, which of these would be part of the explanation for taking bicarbonate (NaHCO 3) for excess stomach acid? A) NaHCO 3 will not release hydrogen ions when mixed with water. B) HCO 3- will be a hydrogen ion acceptor. C) Free hydrogen ions increase the acidity of a solution. D) When bicarbonate ions combine with hydrogen ions, the pH increases. E) All of the choices are correct.
40) A(n) __________ is formed when one atom loses an electron and another atom accepts that electron.
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A) ion B) ionic bond C) hydrogen bond D) covalent bond E) atom
41)
A(n) __________ is formed when two atoms share electrons. A) ion B) ionic bond C) hydrogen bond D) covalent bond E) atom
42)
Substances that donate hydrogen ions (protons) to a solution are called __________. A) acids B) bases C) alkaline D) salts
43)
A solution with a pH of 7 is considered to be __________. A) acidic B) basic or alkaline C) neutral D) in equilibrium
44) Chemicals that resist changes in pH when acids or bases are added to a solution are __________.
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A) acids B) bases C) salts D) buffers
45) A solution with a greater concentration of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions is __________. A) a buffer B) a salt C) basic D) acidic E) hydrophobic
46) Given that MgCl 2 is composed of Mg considered to be a(n) __________.
+2
ions and Cl
-
ions, MgCl
2 would be
A) acid B) base C) salt D) buffer
47)
A(n) __________ is formed by the reaction of an acid and a base. A) acid B) base C) salt D) buffer
48) A solution with a pH of 4 would have __________ hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6. Version 1
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A) 2 times more B) 2 times fewer C) 20 times more D) 20 times fewer E) 100 times more
49)
This figure represents an example of a(n) __________.
A) steroid B) triglyceride C) phospholipids D) wax E) fatty acid
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50)
This figure represents an example of a(n) __________.
A) protein B) nucleic acid C) lipid D) carbohydrate E) ATP molecule
51)
Monosaccharides are the building blocks for __________. A) carbohydrates B) fats (triglycerides) C) nucleic acids D) proteins
52)
Glycerol and fatty acids are the building blocks for __________.
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A) carbohydrates B) fats (triglycerides) C) nucleic acids D) proteins
53)
Nucleotides are the building blocks for __________. A) carbohydrates B) fats (triglycerides) C) nucleic acids D) proteins
54) The macromolecules that function as the genetic material and are involved in protein synthesis are __________. A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) nucleic acids
55) Which group of major organic molecules is a common fuel nutrient and includes glycogen as a storage molecule? A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Nucleic acids
56) A large organic molecule was analyzed and found to contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur. Of the following choices, which would most likely have been the type of molecule analyzed? Version 1
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A) Carbohydrate B) Lipid C) Protein D) Nucleic acid E) Steroid
57)
The building blocks for proteins are __________. A) monosaccharides B) disaccharides C) glycerol and fatty acids D) nucleotides E) amino acids
58)
Which of these statements is TRUE?
A) Carbohydrates are organic molecules formed from amino acid building blocks. B) Monosaccharides become bound together by hydrolysis reactions to form polysaccharides. C) Monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides are large inorganic molecules. D) The building blocks for lipids are nucleotides. E) Nucleic acids are composed of monomers called nucleotides.
59)
The chemical compound that is represented by the acronym ATP
A) is synthesized using energy released during the breakdown of food molecules. B) can be broken down to ADP and a fatty acid. C) has nothing to do with stored energy. D) is a common temporary storage form of immediately usable energy within cells. E) Both "is synthesized using energy released during the breakdown of food molecules" and "is a common temporary storage form of immediately usable energy within cells" are correct.
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60)
Sucrose is an example of a(n) __________. A) monosaccharide B) lipid C) disaccharide D) inorganic molecule E) polysaccharide
61)
Glycogen and starch are examples of __________. A) monosaccharides B) nucleic acids C) proteins D) polysaccharides E) lipids
62)
Which of these statements concerning lipids is NOT true?
A) The building blocks of fats (triglycerides) are fatty acids and glycerol. B) A fatty acid that contains only single covalent bonds between the carbon atoms is called unsaturated. C) Fats, phospholipids, and steroids are lipids. D) Lipids are substances that dissolve in nonpolar solvents.
63) When two or more atoms, ions, or molecules combine to form a new and larger molecule, the process is called a __________ reaction.
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A) decomposition B) synthesis C) reversible D) buffer E) equilibrium
64)
Which of the following processes is (are) a synthesis reaction? A) Glycolysis B) The creation of a protein from amino acids C) Glycogenolysis D) All of the choices are correct.
65) Chemical reactions that can proceed from reactants to products and from products to reactants are called __________ reactions. A) exchange B) synthesis C) decomposition D) reversible E) net reaction
66) In a reversible reaction, when the rate of product formation is equal to the rate of reactant formation, the reaction is A) stopped. B) at equilibrium. C) in danger of exploding. D) a net decomposition reaction. E) a net synthesis reaction.
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67) A substance that increases the rate at which a reaction proceeds, without itself being changed or depleted, is a __________. A) catalyst B) reactant C) buffer D) base E) product
68)
Enzymes A) are globular proteins. B) function as biological catalysts. C) lower the activation energy of a reaction. D) can be used to regulate chemical reactions. E) All of the choices are correct.
69)
Which of the following will decrease the rate at which a reaction occurs? A) Decreasing the concentration of reactants B) Increasing the concentration of reactants C) Increasing the temperature D) Increasing the amount of the required catalyst E) All of the choices are correct.
70) In living things, which of these is most important for regulating the rate of chemical reactions? A) Changing the concentration of reactants B) Changing temperature C) Changing the concentration and activity of enzymes that catalyze the reactions D) The nature of reacting substances; for example, carbohydrates react faster than lipids.
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71)
Enzymes function by A) increasing the activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction. B) having a specific shape that allows them to bind to particular reactants. C) each enzyme acting as a catalyst for many different reaction types. D) greatly decreasing reaction rates. E) doing all of these.
72)
Which of these is NOT a property of water that makes it useful for living organisms? A) Water allows body temperature to increase or decrease rapidly. B) Water causes ionic substances to dissociate. C) Water acts as a lubricant. D) Water is necessary for the transport of nutrients, gases, and waste products. E) Water is necessary for many chemical reactions.
73)
Which of these is an organic molecule? A) H 2O B) H 2CO 3 C) CO 2 D) NaCl E) CaCl 2
74)
Which of the following pairs correctly match(es) the example with its classification?
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A) Compound—two atoms of hydrogen combined B) Molecule—sodium chloride C) Molecule—two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom combined D) Compound—two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom combined E) Both "Molecule—two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom combined" and "Compound—two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom combined" are correct.
75)
Which of the following statements about ionic compounds is TRUE?
A) Ionic compounds dissociate in water because negative ions are attracted to the negative ends of water molecules and positive ions are attracted to the positive ends of water molecules. B) Ionic compounds dissociate in water because positive ions are attracted to the negative ends of water molecules and negative ions are attracted to the positive ends of water molecules.
76)
Understanding chemistry is important for the study of anatomy and physiology because
A) the body is composed of chemicals. B) the interactions of the different chemicals of the body are responsible for body function. C) many diseases and disorders can be explained at the chemical level. D) All of the choices are correct.
77) The weak attraction between the negative end of one polar molecule and the positive end of another polar molecule is called a(n) __________ bond. A) polar covalent B) ionic C) nonpolar covalent D) hydrogen
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78)
When ionic compounds dissolve in water, they A) dissociate, meaning they separate from each other. B) interact with water molecules. C) separate to form electrolytes. D) All of the choices are correct.
79)
Oxygen is essential for most living organisms because
A) it acts as a buffer, regulating pH. B) it stabilizes body temperature. C) it is an important enzyme. D) it is an important reactant in a complex series of chemical reactions in which energy is extracted from food molecules.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_11e 1) FALSE 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) E 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) E 11) A 12) A 13) E 14) A 15) D 16) E 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) E 22) C 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) E Version 1
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