Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. When using the psychological disorder criteria, when would an individual be assessed as having psychological dysfunction? a. when their behavioural functioning is breaking down b. when they are extremely distressed c. when their behaviour violates social norms d. when they avoid interactions with other people 2. Kai, a college student, began feeling sad and lonely. Although he is still able to go to classes and work at his job, Kai finds himself feeling down much of the time and he worries about what is happening to him. Which part of the definition of a psychological disorder applies to his situation? a. personal distress b. lack of social support c. impaired functioning d. violation of societal norms 3. Which of the following is NOT considered to be part of the definition of a psychological disorder? a. personal distress b. rarity c. psychological dysfunction d. violation of societal norms 4. Frank drinks three bottles of wine each day and believes he would be fine if people would just “mind their own business.” Which criterion for a psychological disorder is absent from this scenario? a. objective harm to others b. personal distress c. maladaptiveness d. qualitative uniqueness 5. Popular musician Lady Gaga attended an awards show wearing a dress made completely of meat. Why might Lady Gaga wearing a meat dress be considered disordered? a. Her behaviour demonstrates a sense of subjective discomfort. b. She has an inability to distinguish right from wrong. c. It is a deviation from what is typical in her society. d. She shows an inability to function effectively. 6. In most Western societies, what happens when a person enters a trance state and believes they are possessed? a. The person is believed to be suffering from a psychotic disorder. b. The person is diagnosed with a dissociative disorder. c. The person may be viewed as having a psychological disorder. d. The person can be cured with antipsychotic medication. 7. According to Wakefield, harmful dysfunction includes the consideration of harm, distress, and which of the following? a. the failure of biological and psychological mechanisms
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context b. the success of treatment c. that the behaviour is beyond the individual's control d. that the behaviour is protective 8. Rina has just been diagnosed with schizophrenia and hospitalized. Which of the following would Thomas Szasz most likely argue? a. Rina should not be hospitalized because doing so will only make their symptoms worse. b. Rina’s behaviour does not represent an illness like diabetes, and schizophrenia is merely a label applied on the basis of highly subjective judgments. c. Rina’s schizophrenia is a serious illness that is best treated with a combination of drugs and family therapy. d. Rina should be assessed further because mistakes in diagnosis are made frequently. 9. What is the formal definition of psychopathology? a. the medications used to treat some psychological disorders b. the criteria used to define psychological disorders c. the psychological therapies used to treat psychological disorders d. the scientific study of psychological disorders 10. What does the term psychotherapist describe? a. clinical psychologists and psychiatrists only b. people who provide therapy but who do not hold medical degrees c. people who follow the traditions of Sigmund Freud d. anyone who can provide therapy to members of the public 11. After graduation, two of your friends express an interest in psychology careers. Rohan wants to work with relatively healthy individuals who are experiencing adjustment or vocational difficulties. Anna wants to focus on the more severe psychological disorders and conduct research into their causes. Because you are studying psychopathology, they ask you for career advice. What do you tell them? a. Rohan should study psychology at the graduate level, and Anna should apply to medical school. b. Rohan should study clinical psychology at the graduate level, and Anna should study counselling psychology at the graduate level. c. Both of them should apply to medical school. d. Anna should study clinical psychology at the graduate level, and Rohan should study counselling psychology at the graduate level. 12. What is one of the three ways a mental health practitioner can function as a scientist-practitioner? a. by writing textbooks b. by evaluating clinical practice c. by prescribing medications d. by teaching students 13. A scientist-practitioner that evaluates their own treatment procedures to see whether they work and to generate new knowledge is engaging in which approach? a. prescription b. evidence-based practice Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context c. creation of research d. practice-based evidence 14. A client was feeling very depressed. A professional thought the cause of the client's problem was an excess of a specific neurotransmitter and prescribed a drug to treat them. What kind of professional was this most likely to be? a. a clinical psychologist b. a social worker c. a psychiatric social worker d. a psychiatrist 15. Along with those who are registered with their provincial or territorial board or college, university professors are also permitted to call themselves which of the following? a. therapists b. psychiatrists c. psychologists d. psychotherapists 16. Which of the following mental health professions had the greatest number of practising professionals in Canada in 2019? a. psychiatrists b. psychologists c. psychiatric nurses d. social workers 17. What is the relationship between a presenting problem and a clinical description? a. Obtaining the patient’s clinical description is the first step in determining what the patient’s presenting problem is. b. Describing the patient’s presenting problem is the first step in determining the patient’s clinical description. c. The presenting problem refers to the current status of a distressed individual; the clinical description refers to the treatment plan. d. The presenting problem refers to symptoms that last only a short time, whereas the clinical description refers to symptoms that are chronic. 18. Statistical data are relevant to researchers. For example, one major epidemiological study found that about 7.8 percent of people in North America have had a mood disorder at some point in their lives and that 3.7 percent have experienced a mood disorder over the past year. What do the 7.8 percent and 3.7 percent statistics refer to, respectively? a. incidence; prevalence b. incidence; recurrence c. proportion; prevalence d. prevalence; incidence 19. Psychological disorders can be described as following a typical course or an individual pattern. Disorders that tend to last a long time follow one type of course, whereas disorders that show a discontinuous, recurrent pattern follow another type of course. What are these courses, respectively? a. chronic; episodic b. chronic; time-limited Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context c. pervasive; time-limited d. insidious; recurrent 20. Soren's symptoms of insomnia have improved without treatment over a short period of time. Which type of course would Soren's insomnia be considered to have? a. time-limited course b. chronic course c. episodic course d. sporadic course 21. If a psychological disorder is said to have an acute onset, how did the symptoms develop? a. atypically b. suddenly c. gradually d. sporadically 22. When 20-year-old Panya was first identified as having schizophrenia, her family wanted to know how the disorder would progress and how it would affect her in the future. In medical terms, what did the family want to know? a. Panya's psychosocial profile b. Panya's pathology c. Panya's diagnosis d. Panya's prognosis 23. Why is a patient’s age important information in the clinical description? a. Young children do not experience true psychological disorders. b. Older adults are reluctant to report psychological symptoms. c. Children are not reliable sources of information about symptoms. d. Disorders occurring in childhood may present differently at older ages. 24. Which term refers to the study of the origins of a disorder? a. prognosis b. etiology c. symptomology d. prevalence 25. During more superstitious times, which of the following was thought to be the cause of atypical behaviour? a. a demonic possession b. black bile c. homosexuality d. punishment of the illiterate 26. Which of the following terms for mental illness is related to movements of the moon and stars? a. lunatic b. mental defective c. maniac Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context d. idiot 27. In 14th- and 15th-century Europe, to what was inexplicable behaviour attributed? a. evil b. stupidity c. humors d. astrology 28. In the Middle Ages, one of the chief advisers to France’s King Charles V, Nicholas Oresme, suggested that which of the following was responsible for bizarre behaviour? a. the moon b. religion c. melancholy d. greed 29. In the 14th and 15th centuries, in addition to attributing mental illness to the supernatural, some people suggested that mental illness was caused by what other factor? a. an unhealthy lifestyle b. head injuries c. stress d. genes 30. In 14th- and 15th-century Europe, if someone was treated with rest, sleep, and various potions, what did they likely believe the cause of the psychological disorder to be? a. demons b. witches c. stress d. possession 31. In the 14th century, what did the physician who first treated France’s King Charles VI suggest as a cure? a. reducing his responsibilities b. bloodletting c. exorcism d. sexual abstinence 32. Who was considered to be “The Mad King”? a. King Charles VI b. Edward VIII c. Harold II d. Henry VIII 33. Why were snake pits built in many institutions? a. The snakes were a form of torture for patients, thus decreasing their symptoms. b. Hanging people over a pit of poisonous snakes sometimes gave them relief from their symptoms, thus reinforcing the process. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context c. It was considered to be a form of faith healing. d. They were used as a form of phobia treatment. 34. Alonso believes that Hedwig’s behaviour is due to an excess of black bile. Whose ideas does Alonso's belief best align with? a. Blueler b. Aristotle c. Newton d. Hippocrates 35. According to the ancient Greek physician Hippocrates, which factor could negatively influence psychological functioning? a. bodily fluids b. birth order c. belief in astrology d. supernatural forces 36. Who was the first theorist to argue that genetics were related to psychological disorders? a. Hippocrates b. Galen c. Freud d. Grey 37. You are listening to old songs, including “Melancholy Baby.” Your friends are impressed when you tell them that melancholic, referring to a depressive personality, derives from the Greek term melancholer. What does this term mean? a. yellow bile b. phlegm c. blood d. black bile 38. According to Hippocrates’s humoral theory, which term best characterizes the choleric personality? a. hot tempered b. kind c. lacking affect d. easygoing 39. Based on Hippocrates’s humoral theory, what type of person does the term sanguine describe? a. humorous b. pessimistic c. pale d. cheerful 40. Bloodletting, often through the use of leeches, was a treatment devised centuries ago. What was this treatment used for? a. to reduce excessive blood in the brain Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context b. to correct a chemical imbalance in the brain c. to reduce the negative effects of stress d. to restore the balance of humors 41. Induced vomiting was a 17th-century treatment for depression. As described in Anatomy of Melancholy (1621), this could be accomplished by eating what? a. tobacco b. ice c. raw meat d. onions 42. The concept of hysteria traditionally meant physical symptoms for which no organic pathology could be found. Which term is now used to refer to this concept? a. neurosis b. anxiety disorders c. delusions d. somatic symptom disorders 43. Why are hysterical disorders no longer considered to be caused by a “wandering” uterus? a. Men also develop hysterical disorders. b. There is a greater knowledge of physiology. c. The theory is considered insulting to women. d. When the uterus is removed, symptoms tend to remain. 44. In ancient Greece, a woman with hysteria might be told that her condition could be cured by which of the following? a. induced seizures b. bloodletting c. marriage d. rest and relaxation 45. William lived in the 19th century and had the cognitive disorder known as general paresis. Based on this information, what other disease do you know William suffered from? a. epilepsy b. hysteria c. malaria d. syphilis 46. John P. Grey was an important figure in 19th-century psychiatry in the United States. What did he believe was always the cause of mental illness? a. physical causes b. social/environmental influences c. psychological factors d. unknown influences 47. You are a psychiatrist in the 1930s who has decided to begin treating your patients diagnosed with schizophrenia with Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context a new treatment known as electroconvulsive therapy instead of the traditional insulin shock therapy. What is the most likely reason for this decision? a. You believe that insulin therapy is too expensive. b. You believe that insulin therapy is too dangerous. c. You believe that insulin therapy is not effective. d. You believe that insulin therapy is unethical. 48. Why was electroconvulsive therapy originally used as a therapy for schizophrenia? a. It was (mistakenly) observed that schizophrenia was rarely found in people with epilepsy. b. It was (mistakenly) observed that it could reduce brain seizures, providing a cure. c. It was (mistakenly) observed to induce convulsions and stimulate appetite in psychotic patients. d. It was (mistakenly) observed to alleviate the depression that often accompanies schizophrenia. 49. In the middle of the 20th century, what were some of the first effective drugs for psychological disorders? a. benzodiazepines to treat depression b. bromides and opium for sedation c. insulin and neuroleptics for sedation d. neuroleptics for psychotic symptoms 50. In many parts of the world during the 1970s, what would an individual who had an anxiety disorder most likely have been prescribed? a. bromides b. neuroleptics c. benzodiazepines d. electroconvulsive therapy 51. The discovery of certain tranquilizers made it possible to control psychotic symptoms, including hallucinations and delusions. What kind of drugs were these tranquilizers? a. neuroleptics b. bromides c. benzodiazepines d. opiates 52. In the late 1800s, there was an emphasis on biological causes of mental disorders, which ironically reduced interest in treatments for mental patients. Why did this happen? a. It was thought that hospital staff were not adequately trained to administer new treatments. b. It was thought that patients would improve more rapidly if they were not hospitalized. c. It was thought that mental illness caused by brain pathology was incurable. d. It was thought that physicians should devote more time to the physically ill. 53. Why was Emil Kraeplin’s lasting contribution to modern psychiatry in the area of diagnosis and classification of psychological disorders, rather than that of treatment? a. because of his discomfort with actually working with patients b. because of his conviction that better diagnosis was necessary for more effective treatment c. because of his belief that these disorders were due to brain pathology Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context d. because of his belief in the influence of the social environment in mental illness 54. Which Greek philosopher suggested that maladaptive behaviour was rooted in social and cultural factors? a. Galen b. Hippocrates c. Plato d. Aristotle 55. Moral therapy as a system originated with which of the following individuals? a. Benjamin Rush b. Hippocrates c. William Tuke d. Philippe Pinel 56. Who is considered to be the founder of North American psychiatry? a. Benjamin Rush b. Hippocrates c. William Tuke d. Philippe Pinel 57. In the psychosocial approach called moral therapy, what does the term moral mean? a. emotional b. ethical c. religious d. story 58. Whose work led to a decline in moral therapy? a. John P. Grey b. Dorothea Dix c. Aristotle d. Sigmund Freud 59. As a result of moral therapy, what was eliminated in asylums in the mid-18th century? a. physical restraints and seclusion b. individual attention from the hospital staff c. lectures on interesting subjects for hospitalized patients d. opportunities for normal social interaction 60. When did moral therapy work best? a. when it was used with groups of patients, rather than one on one b. when the number of patients in an institution was 200 or fewer c. when it was used in populations of immigrants and the poor d. when it was supplemented by the use of restraint and seclusion
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context 61. What movement did Dorothea Dix start? a. the mental hygiene movement b. the moral movement c. the humane therapy movement d. the deinstitutionalization movement 62. What is the most notable contribution of Clarence Hincks? a. He argued that mental illness is treatable with a combination of drugs and individualized attention. b. He argued that mental illness was incurable, but more humane institutions were needed to care people with mental illnesses. c. He argued that mental illness was caused by brain pathology and, therefore, was incurable and that therapy should consist of learning to cope with symptoms. d. He argued that mental illness was treatable, which was contrary to the prevailing view at the time. 63. Anton Mesmer, an early 18th-century physician, purported to cure patients by unblocking the flow of a bodily fluid he called animal magnetism. Benjamin Franklin’s double-blind experiment indicated that any effectiveness of Mesmer’s methods was actually because of which of the following? a. undetectable magnetic fields b. chemically induced humoral balance c. the power of suggestion d. mental telepathy 64. What did Jean Charcot find when he used a variation of Mesmer’s techniques? a. These methods were effective in treating a number of psychological disorders. b. These methods were no more effective than previous methods he had used. c. Patients were better able to understand the link between their emotional problems and their psychological disorder. d. The symptoms of some patients actually worsened. 65. Realizing patients are often unaware of material previously recalled under hypnosis, Breuer and Freud hypothesized the existence of a concept considered one of the most important developments in the history of psychopathology. What was that concept? a. psychosis b. the unconscious mind c. catharsis d. repression 66. What did Freud and Breuer discover about the process known as catharsis? a. They discovered that it reduces psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. b. They discovered that it occurs beyond the conscious awareness of the patient. c. They discovered that it leads to insight. d. They discovered that the power of suggestion subconsciously changed behaviour. 67. In 1895, how did neurologist Josef Breuer treat Anna O.’s hysterical symptoms? a. using mesmerism Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context b. using hydrotherapy c. using the placebo effect d. using hypnosis 68. Freud and Breuer’s ideas were based on which of the following? a. case observations b. healthy individuals c. biological theory d. institutionalized individuals 69. Which of the following is NOT included as part of Freud’s structure of the mind? a. psyche b. superego c. ego d. id 70. In Freudian theory, the terms libido and thanatos represent two basic but opposing drives. What are they? a. life and death b. pleasure and pain c. sex and celibacy d. good and evil 71. You have just read a newspaper article about a murder. You wonder how anyone could commit such a horrible crime. Then you recall from your study of Freudian theory that anyone could be a killer if certain impulses are not well controlled. Which term best describes these impulses? a. intrapsychic forces b. a libidinous desire c. the drive of the id d. primitive forces 72. The ego operates according to one principle, and the id operates according to another principle. What are they, respectively? a. reality; pleasure b. conscious; unconscious c. pleasure; aggression d. reality; aggression 73. According to psychoanalytic theory, what function does a person develop early in life to ensure that they can adapt to the demands of the real world while still finding ways of meeting their basic needs? a. id b. conscience c. superego d. ego 74. According to psychoanalytic theory, the id operates according to the pleasure principle. What does that mean? Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context a. It uses secondary-process thinking. b. It thinks in an unemotional, logical, and rational manner. c. It is sexual, aggressive, selfish, and envious. d. It adheres to social rules and regulations. 75. A classmate in your psychology course is worried about the selfish and sometimes dangerous drives of the id. What should you say to your classmate to address this fear? a. Because id impulses are usually part of conscious awareness, we can learn to control them. b. Id fantasies never become part of conscious awareness, so we never act on them. c. Each of us develops an ego to help us behave more realistically. d. The selfish drives of the id are transformed to positive emotional expressions. 76. According to psychoanalytic theory, what is the role of the ego? a. to counteract the aggressive and sexual drives of the id b. to maximize pleasure and reduce tension c. to mediate conflict between the id and the superego d. to increase self-esteem and a strong sense of identity 77. In Freud’s structure of the mind, which two elements are almost entirely unconscious? a. the ego and the id b. the id and the superego c. the conscience and the ego d. the superego and the ego 78. Because the purpose of the superego is to counteract the aggressive and sexual drives of the id that are potentially dangerous, which of the following often results? a. logic b. aggression c. conflict d. pleasure 79. According to psychoanalytic theory, what do the conflicts between the id and the superego often lead to? a. anxiety b. anger c. violent behaviour d. depression 80. According to Freudian theory, anxiety is a signal for the ego to marshal its mechanisms of defence. This is a function of which of the following? a. reality-based actions b. conscious efforts to maintain control c. unconscious protective processes d. primitive emotional responses 81. Which of the following is a characteristic of how defence mechanisms affect coping styles? Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context a. They are dependent upon the age of the person and how they are used. b. They can be either adaptive or maladaptive. c. They are self-defeating. d. They are adaptive. 82. Trent is in psychoanalysis and states to his therapist that he thinks that his partner is considering having an affair with their co-worker. Later in the session, Trent admits that he is tempted to start an affair with his own co-worker. What defence mechanism was Trent displaying when he accused his partner of thinking about being unfaithful? a. sublimation b. projection c. displacement d. denial 83. Mrs. Babcock received a very poor rating from her supervisor, who had been constantly criticizing her in front of her co-workers. When she got home, her children ran up to greet her, all talking at once. She responded by yelling, “Leave me alone! Can’t you see I’m tired?” According to psychoanalytic theory, which defence mechanism does this situation illustrate? a. projection b. displacement c. repression d. rationalization 84. Remi and Nina have been dating for six months. Nina is not interested in continuing their relationship. She calls Remi and informs him that although she cares about him, she must end their relationship. Remi laughs and says, “Funny joke.” Nina states, “This is not a joke; I am serious.” Remi then says, “I’ll pick you up in an hour for dinner.” Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. displacement b. projection c. denial d. repression 85. After receiving the results of four different sets of tests, Amaya's doctor tells her that she has cancer. Amaya states, “This can’t be true; I’m going to get a second opinion.” Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. displacement b. denial c. projection d. repression 86. In which defence mechanism does an individual substitute behaviour, thoughts, or feelings that are the direct opposite of unacceptable ones? a. displacement b. repression c. rationalization d. reaction formation 87. Which of the following is an example of a healthy defence mechanism? Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context a. sublimation b. projection c. denial d. repression 88. When Tyra is feeling frustrated, they often channel their aggressive impulses into something more productive, like boxing or martial arts. What type of defense mechanism would this represent? a. projection b. repression c. denial d. sublimation 89. Vera was playing piano in a large concert recital and froze. Later when asked about the situation, Vera had no recollection of this happening. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. denial b. repression c. projection d. reaction formation 90. A four-year-old girl sucks her thumb, a teenager binges on food, and an adult woman bites her fingernails. According to the Freudian theory of psychosexual development, what underlies all these behaviours? a. repression of aggressive impulses b. a fixation at the oral stage of psychosexual development c. a trauma during the toilet-training phase d. denial of unacceptable feelings, thoughts, or wishes 91. The Oedipus complex is the psychosexual conflict occurring during the phallic stage of development in boys. How is this complex characterized? a. by love for the mother and feelings of anger and envy toward the father b. by a repressed need for oral gratification c. by a love for the father and feelings of repulsion toward the mother d. by a conscious need for genital self-stimulation 92. The Electra complex is the psychosexual conflict that occurs at the phallic stage of development in girls. How is this complex characterized? a. by latency lust b. by feelings of anger and envy toward the mother c. by castration anxiety d. by a desire to replace the mother and possess the father 93. According to Freud, how is the Electra complex partially resolved? a. by developing healthy relationships b. by therapy c. by developing penis envy d. by developing neuroses Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context 94. According to Freud, what are all nonpsychotic psychological disorders called? a. anxiety b. neuroses c. thanatos d. intrapsychic conflict 95. As compared to her father, Sigmund Freud, Anna Freud (1895–1982) focused her work on the way our behaviour is influenced. Which of the following did she write? a. Id and the Mechanisms of Defense b. Our Neurosis and the Mechanisms of Defense c. Our Self-Actualization and the Mechanisms of Defense d. Ego and the Mechanisms of Defense 96. According to Anna Freud's ego psychology, when does disordered behaviour develop? a. when the ego does not develop normally because of psychosexual conflicts at the oral stage of development b. when the ego is deficient in regulating such functions as delaying and controlling impulses c. when there are social and psychological barriers to achieving self-actualization d. when maladaptive defence mechanisms are not overridden by adaptive defence mechanisms 97. In contrast to Freud, how did Jung and Adler view human nature? a. They believed that cognitive and personality factors shape human potential. b. They believed that humans are born with a strong drive toward self-actualization. c. They believed that the ego is much stronger than Freud postulated. d. They believed that humans are shaped through learning by their environment. 98. What was Erikson’s greatest contribution to psychoanalytical theorizing? a. his idea that development occurs across the lifespan b. his idea that sexual arousal and interest occur during the latency stage c. his idea that societal factors influence our behaviour d. his idea that intrapsychic conflicts are resolved in early childhood 99. Your therapist asks you to say whatever comes to mind in an attempt to reveal emotionally charged material that may be repressed because it is too painful to bring into consciousness. What is this technique referred to as? a. dream analysis b. transference c. free association d. countertransference 100. In classical psychoanalysis, why is the process whereby the therapist interprets a patient’s dreams often difficult? a. The patient may resist uncovering repressed material and deny the interpretation. b. Patients often forget their dreams. c. The patient may relate to the therapist much as they did toward a parent figure. d. The therapist may want not to upset the patient with a negative interpretation. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context 101. In psychoanalytic psychotherapy, which of the following is most important for patients? a. to strive to reach their full potential b. to remain emotionally detached from the analyst c. to find an effective medication d. to reveal the nature of unconscious mental processes and conflicts 102. In classical psychoanalysis, what does the concept of transference refer to? a. the process whereby the patient falsely attributes their own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to the therapist b. the process whereby the therapist projects some of their own personal feelings onto the patient c. the process whereby the patient relates to the therapist as they would toward a parent figure d. the process whereby the patient directs potentially maladaptive impulses to socially acceptable behaviour 103. How does psychodynamic psychotherapy differ from classical (Freudian) psychoanalysis? a. It emphasizes the goal of personality reconstruction. b. It focuses more on social and interpersonal issues. c. It considers past experiences important. d. It requires a long-term commitment on the part of the person being analyzed. 104. How do most mental health professionals view psychoanalysis as a treatment technique? a. It has been proven effective. b. It has been subject to careful measurement criteria. c. It is basically unscientific. d. It is noted for consistency in analytic interpretation. 105. The underlying assumption that we all can reach our highest potential, in all areas of functioning, if we have the freedom to grow is referred to as which of the following? a. empathy b. Gestalt c. person-centred d. self-actualizing 106. Who is the concept of a hierarchy of needs most strongly associated with? a. Carl Rogers b. Anna Freud c. Abraham Maslow d. Carl Jung 107. According to Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, individuals will be unable to achieve high levels of selfactualization and self-esteem unless which of the following has taken place? a. unless they have been raised with unconditional positive regard from primary caregivers b. unless they have first met more basic human requirements such as food, sex, and friendship c. unless they have developed sufficient ego strength d. unless they have gratified their basic needs and satisfied their drive for physical pleasure through the five psychosexual stages of development Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context 108. Which of the following is associated with the humanistic theories of Carl Rogers? a. hierarchy of needs b. dream analysis c. moral hygiene d. person-centred therapy 109. What do humanistic therapists regard as the most positive influence in facilitating human growth? a. a therapist's interpretations of the patient's verbalizations b. self-esteem c. ego development d. relationships (including the therapeutic relationship) 110. A therapist is showing complete and almost unqualified acceptance of most of their client's feelings and actions. What is the therapist demonstrating? a. therapeutic alliance b. unconditional positive regard c. empathy d. conditional positive regard 111. How does Gestalt therapy differ from psychoanalytic therapy? a. In Gestalt therapy, there is no delving into past experiences. b. In Gestalt therapy, the critical element is the therapist’s unconditional positive regard for the patient. c. In Gestalt therapy, there is little emphasis on the here and now. d. In Gestalt therapy, there is little or no training required for therapists. 112. As Maslow noted, traditional person-centred therapy has found its greatest application among which population? a. those with anxiety b. those without psychological disorders c. those dealing with trauma d. those who have had training in psychotherapy 113. Current therapies, including experiential and emotion-focused therapies, have their roots in which approaches? a. behavioural and Gestalt b. behavioural and psychoanalytic c. person-centred and Gestalt d. psychoanalytic and person-centred 114. Pavlov's experiment of the salivation response in dogs initiated the study of which type of learning? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. social learning d. cognitive-behavioural learning 115. Mei underwent chemotherapy treatment for cancer. She now reports experiencing mild nausea when she drives by the hospital and severe nausea when she enters the hospital where her chemotherapy was administered. What phenomenon Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context best explains these reactions to stimuli she associates with her chemotherapy? a. reconditioning b. introspection c. operant conditioning d. stimulus generalization 116. A patient undergoing chemotherapy now reports experiencing mild nausea when they interact with the nurse who administered their chemotherapy. What best describes the nurse in this situation? a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response 117. A dog had been conditioned to salivate to the sound of a bell because of its association with the presentation of food. Later, when exposed to the bell without food for a long period, the dog eventually stopped salivating to the sound of the bell. What is this phenomenon known as? a. extinction b. response fading c. conditioned forgetting d. stimulus fading 118. The process of reporting on inner thoughts and feelings after experiencing stimuli is referred to as which of the following? a. extinction b. generalization c. classical conditioning d. introspection 119. Why is Watson and Rayner’s experiment in which they induced a fear of white, furry objects in Little Albert famous? a. It was the first real-life demonstration of operant conditioning. b. It was the first recorded lawsuit made against the psychology profession for unethical behaviour. c. It was the first recorded example of inducing fear of an object in a laboratory setting. d. It proved the law of effect. 120. What does Wolpe’s technique of systematic desensitization involve? a. reinforcing successive approximations to a final behaviour or set of behaviours b. gradually introducing the feared objects or situations so that fear can decline c. gradually reinforcing fearless behaviour and punishing fear responses d. reinforcing an incompatible response to a feared situation 121. Jason has been having a lot of difficulty because of his irrational fears. His doctor advises Jason to participate in an anxiety-reduction procedure based on the work of Joseph Wolpe. What is this procedure? a. aversive conditioning b. person-centred therapy Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context c. systematic desensitization d. mesmerism 122. You are in a mall when a young child begins to scream and shout because his parents will not buy him the latest toy. What would B. F. Skinner most likely say about the child’s behaviour? a. It is an expression of repressed Oedipal anger toward his father, and it will diminish naturally as he gets older. b. It is a classically conditioned response to being in the mall. c. It would be most effectively altered over the long term by simply ignoring it. d. It would be most effectively altered over the long term by scolding him and positively reinforcing more appropriate behaviour. 123. What is the name for the idea that behaviour is either strengthened or weakened depending on the consequences of that behaviour? a. law of effect b. classical conditioning c. systematic desensitization d. behaviour therapy 124. Why are operant conditioning techniques being applied in Canadian hospital settings? a. to increase patients’ insight into their fears and wishes b. to reduce psychiatric patients’ undesirable behaviour and increase their desirable behaviour c. to reduce patients’ fear of surgery d. to increase nursing staff’s empathy 125. Which approach brought the systematic development of a more scientific approach to psychological aspects of psychopathology? a. behavioural b. psychoanalytic c. humanistic d. Gestalt 126. Which method would be the most successful in teaching a pigeon to play Ping-Pong? a. classical conditioning b. shaping c. systematic desensitization d. introspection 127. What is the name for learning in which a neutral stimulus is paired with a response until it elicits that response? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. systematic desensitization d. extinction 128. What are two recent developments that have contributed to a multidimensional, integrative approach to psychopathology? Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context a. the introduction of highly specialized drugs and more sophisticated training for mental health workers b. increasingly sophisticated scientific tools and methodology and the realization that no one influence on behaviour ever occurs in isolation c. deinstitutionalization and the growth of humanistic therapies d. an increase in public mental health education and less reliance on drugs to control disordered behaviour
129. Discuss the criteria for psychological disorders and the meanings of psychological dysfunction, personal distress, and atypical or not culturally expected behaviour. 130. Discuss the controversy surrounding the use of medical diagnoses in the case of psychological disorders. Explain the position taken by Thomas Szasz. 131. Describe the educational and professional differences between psychologists and psychiatrists. In Canada, who is permitted to hold themselves out to the public as a psychologist (e.g., in advertising)? 132. Discuss the evolution of biological treatments for psychological disorders across the 20th century. Explain the development and use of insulin shock therapy and electroconvulsive therapy in the first part of the century, and describe the major drug therapies developed in the latter half. 133. Describe the psychosocial approach to mental disorders called moral therapy. Mention key figures who contributed to or promoted this approach. Discuss whether this approach was effective in improving conditions for people with mental illnesses. Explain the reasons for the decline of moral therapy. 134. Explain the basic assumptions of psychoanalytic theory. Refer to concepts such as anxiety, defence mechanisms, and psychosexual development. Use specific examples to illustrate these concepts. 135. Compare and contrast the three traditional models of disordered behaviour: supernatural, psychological, and biological. Mention key aspects of the explanations of disordered behaviour and treatments of people with mental illnesses associated with each model. 136. Compare and contrast classical psychoanalysis and psychodynamic psychotherapy. Note the criticisms of classical psychoanalysis and explain why it is more of historical than of current interest. 137. Compare the basic assumptions and techniques of behaviour therapy versus humanistic therapy. Mention significant figures who contributed to each approach and the key concepts associated with those individuals. 138. Compare and contrast classical and operant conditioning. Mention significant figures who contributed to each approach and how shaping and systematic desensitization relate to these types of learning. 139. Identify and explain the developments in the 1990s that contributed to a multidimensional, integrative approach to psychopathology. Describe the contributions that cognitive science and neuroscience have made to our expanding knowledge about psychopathology.
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. d 10. d 11. d 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. a Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context 26. a 27. a 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. a 37. d 38. a 39. d 40. d 41. a 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. d 46. a 47. b 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. a Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context 52. c 53. c 54. c 55. d 56. a 57. a 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. a 62. d 63. c 64. a 65. b 66. c 67. d 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. c 75. c 76. c Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context 77. b 78. c 79. a 80. c 81. b 82. b 83. b 84. c 85. b 86. d 87. a 88. d 89. b 90. b 91. a 92. d 93. a 94. b 95. d 96. b 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. d 102. c Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context 103. b 104. c 105. d 106. c 107. b 108. d 109. d 110. b 111. a 112. b 113. c 114. a 115. d 116. c 117. a 118. d 119. c 120. b 121. c 122. d 123. a 124. b 125. a 126. b 127. b Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 01: Psychopathology in Historical Context 128. b 129. Student responses will vary. 130. Student responses will vary. 131. Student responses will vary. 132. Student responses will vary. 133. Student responses will vary. 134. Student responses will vary. 135. Student responses will vary. 136. Student responses will vary. 137. Student responses will vary. 138. Student responses will vary. 139. Student responses will vary.
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Your very shy and withdrawn uncle spent most of his teen years in a hospital undergoing treatment for a severe physical injury. He has been diagnosed with social phobia that you believe is entirely due to his lack of socialization during his teen years. Which of the following best describes your theory? a. one-dimensional b. integrative c. multidimensional d. empirical 2. According to the text, which of the following was discussed as a biological influence for Jody’s blood-injury-injection phobia? a. an increase in heart rate and blood pressure leading to vasovagal syncope b. a genetic tendency to fear situations involving blood and injury c. a conditioned response of fear resulting from exposure to blood and injury d. increased fear and anxiety pertaining to situations involving blood and injury 3. Which statement is the best analogy for the influence of genes on our cognitive development? a. They are like an ignition switch on a rocket that can go forever. b. They are like a fence that holds us within a boundary. c. They are like a door that leads us to our destiny. d. They are like a hurdle that we must jump over. 4. Our complete set of genetic instructions is referred to as which of the following? a. phenotype b. chromosomes c. autosomes d. genome 5. The outward appearance of the person’s genetic makeup is called? a. genome b. genotype c. phenotype d. autosome 6. Colour-blindness is caused by which of the following? a. dominant allele on the X chromosome b. recessive allele on the X chromosome c. dominant allele on the Y chromosome d. recessive allele on the Y chromosome 7. Why are behaviour and personality described as polygenic? a. Both are rarely influenced by individual genes. b. Both are influenced by many genes, with each individual gene contributing a relatively small effect. c. Both are influenced by a few select genes, each exerting a large effect. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology d. Both are a result of our genetic structure. 8. What does recent evidence regarding the genetic influence on most psychological disorders indicate? a. Multiple genes interact, with each gene contributing a small effect. b. Single genes are usually responsible for psychological disorders. c. Genes that influence psychopathology are usually recessive. d. Little evidence suggests that genes actually influence psychopathology. 9. Dr. Naima’s research focuses on the effects of genes, individual differences, and heritability of depression but does not examine which genes are responsible for the disorder. Which type of research does Dr. Naima’s focus fall under? a. quantitative genetics b. molecular genetics c. cross-fostering d. psychopathology 10. If Luka and Lev are identical twins and you know that Luka has autism, what can you say about Lev? a. Lev will definitely have the disorder as well. b. Lev has the same probability of having the disorder as the rest of the population. c. Lev has approximately a 70 percent chance of also having the disorder. d. Lev has no genetic likelihood of developing the disorder and will only develop the disorder if exposed to the right environmental factors. 11. According to current research, what is the best estimate of the influence of genetic influence on personality, cognitive, and emotional traits? a. Approximately 10 percent b. Approximately 25 percent c. Approximately 50 percent d. Approximately 75 percent 12. Although not the first to propose it, Eric Kandel is credited with which of the following ideas? a. The genetic functioning of cells may actually change as a result of learning. b. Individual differences are based on environmental factors. c. Genes are involved in the etiology of psychological disorders. d. The contributions of genes come from many genes. 13. In the diathesis–stress model, what does diathesis refer to? a. conditions in the environment that can trigger a disorder depending upon how severe the stressors are b. an inherited, subclinical disease state that has the potential for developing into a full-blown psychological disorder, given certain environmental conditions c. an inherited tendency or condition that makes a person susceptible to developing a disorder d. the interaction of social and psychological influences 14. Who speculated that the process of learning affects more than behaviour and suggested that the genetic structure of cells may change as the result of learning? a. B. F. Skinner Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology b. Gregor Mendel c. Sigmund Freud d. Eric Kandel 15. Which term refers to the inherited tendency or vulnerability toward developing a disorder? a. disposition b. diathesis c. stress d. trigger 16. In the diathesis–stress model, what does stress refer to? a. life events that, in combination with an inherited tendency, trigger a disorder b. inherited tendencies that, in combination with life events, trigger a disorder c. the fact that without a diathesis, a disorder will not develop d. exposure to very unusual and extreme environmental conditions, which trigger a disorder 17. Dr. Jenkins argues that it is possible to inherit certain genes that could develop into a disorder, even though the disorder may never be activated unless conditions of trauma, challenge, or anxiety are experienced. Which model supports Dr. Jenkins’s hypothesis? a. the diathesis–stress model b. the psycho–social model c. the genetic model d. the reciprocal gene–environment model 18. Based on the diathesis–stress model, which of the following is correct? a. The smaller the vulnerability, the greater the life stress required to produce the disorder. b. The larger the vulnerability, the greater the life stress required to produce the disorder. c. The smaller the vulnerability, the lower the life stress required to produce the disorder. d. There is no relationship between the amount of vulnerability and the amount of life stress required to produce a disorder. 19. The study by Kilpatrick et al. (2007) found that individuals were more likely to develop PTSD after the Florida hurricanes of 2004 if they had which of the following genetic makeups? a. SS (two short alleles) b. LL (two long alleles) c. SL (one short allele and one long allele) d. SSL (a mutation of three alleles, two short and one long) 20. Which model is characterized by the idea that our inherited tendencies influence the probability that we will encounter anxious life events? a. the psycho–social model b. the genetic model c. the diathesis–stress model d. the gene–environment correlation model Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 21. John has inherited a personality trait that makes him more likely to keep to himself than to socialize. As a result, he does not have many friends and spends a lot of time alone. If John were to develop depression, which model would best explain this situation and the cause of his depression? a. the interpersonal model b. the gene–environment correlation model c. the biological model d. the diathesis–stress model 22. Which genetic structure has been found to be correlated to lifespan? a. telomere length b. autosome length c. telomere width d. chromosome width 23. Suppose you are a researcher who has bred rats to be emotional and reactive and then you cross-foster those rats so they are raised by calm mothers. What result would you expect? a. The young animals will tend to be emotional and reactive as youths but calm when raising their own young. b. The young animals will tend to be calm throughout their lives. c. The young animals will tend to be mostly calm but emotional and reactive when faced with stressful situations. d. The young animals will tend to be emotional and reactive. 24. Which term refers to the process by which DNA can be influenced as a result of the environment influencing gene expression? a. stress b. diathesis c. epigenetics d. polygenics 25. Which of the following has been implicated in intergenerational trauma experienced by some Indigenous groups? a. environmental influences b. diathesis–stress c. neurotransmitters d. epigenetics 26. Loise has experienced an injury and can no longer process and react to some sensory information. Which of Loise’s nervous systems is damaged? a. her peripheral nervous system b. her central nervous system c. her sympathetic nervous system d. her parasympathetic nervous system 27. Which nervous system processes all information received from our sense organs and reacts as necessary? a. the peripheral nervous system b. the central nervous system Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology c. the sympathetic nervous system d. the parasympathetic nervous system 28. What do we call the area between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another neuron? a. the neural cleft b. the dendritic opening c. the axon terminal d. the synaptic cleft 29. Why are neurotransmitters important? a. They allow one nerve cell to transmit an impulse to another. b. They are converted into electrical impulses. c. They nurture the neuronal structures of the brain. d. They allow the brain to maintain its structural integrity. 30. How can neurotransmitters negatively affect psychological functioning? a. when they are chemically transformed and not recognizable by the brain b. when the wrong neurotransmitters come in contact with a neuron c. when production of neurotransmitters is either excessive or insufficient d. when an individual produces antibodies that make neurotransmitters ineffective 31. Which of the following occupations is an analogy for the main function of neurotransmitters? a. a doorperson at a hotel b. a messenger in a city c. a conductor of a train d. an actor in a play 32. What are neurotransmitters that decrease the likelihood that a connecting neuron will fire called? a. excitatory b. inhibitory c. insufficient d. vesicles 33. A client is experiencing a lot of anxiety. Early researchers would have argued that the client's anxiety was a result of which of the following? a. reduced levels of norepinephrine b. excessive levels of dopamine c. reduced levels of GABA d. excessive levels of serotonin 34. If you had to choose one brain area to protect so that you could stay alive, which would it be? a. the frontal lobes b. the brain stem c. the forebrain Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology d. the midbrain 35. Maya has experienced brain damage that has left her with difficulty sleeping and the problem of being hyperaroused. Which area of the brain was most likely damaged? a. the pons b. the medulla c. the hypothalamus d. the reticular activating system 36. What part of the brain stem regulates vital activities such as heartbeat, breathing, and digestion? a. the forebrain b. the thalamus c. the reticular activating system d. the hindbrain 37. A gymnast is having difficulty maintaining their balance and coordinating muscle movements. Assuming their problems result from a brain injury, which of the following would you first examine? a. the cerebellum b. the medulla c. the thalamus d. the midbrain 38. Javier has a form of epilepsy that affects his limbic system. What sort of behaviour is Javier most likely to display while having a seizure? a. lack of body posture and uncoordinated movement b. unusual emotional expressions and aggression c. disturbed sleep d. difficulty breathing 39. Many of the limbic structures have been named based on their approximate shape. What system resembles a sea horse? a. septum b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. caudate 40. If you put all the neurons from a brain in a hat and randomly selected one, which area would the neuron most likely have come from? a. the basal ganglia b. the midbrain c. the cerebral cortex d. the brain stem 41. A student is writing a paper on philosophical theories of morality. Which part of their brain would a PET scan show to be most active at this time? Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology a. the hindbrain b. the cerebral cortex c. the midbrain d. the limbic system 42. Where in the brain are verbal and cognitive processes usually controlled? a. across the entire cortex b. in the midbrain c. in the left hemisphere of the cortex d. in the right hemisphere of the cortex 43. Yara had part of her brain removed to control epilepsy and, as a result, she can no longer solve problems that require visual imagery. What area of the brain did Yara have removed? a. part of the left hemisphere of the cortex b. part of the right hemisphere of the cortex c. part of the pons d. part of the midbrain 44. A patient suffered a serious head injury and has since experienced difficulty recognizing specific sights and sounds. Which lobe of their brain has most likely been damaged? a. the temporal lobe b. the parietal lobe c. the frontal lobe d. the occipital lobe 45. Which part of the brain is most associated with memory, thought, and reasoning? a. the left parietal lobe b. the brain stem c. the occipital lobe d. the frontal lobe 46. When studying areas of the brain for clues to psychological disorders, which lobe of the brain do researchers most often focus on? a. the temporal lobe b. the parietal lobe c. the frontal lobe d. the occipital lobe 47. What is the major function of the peripheral nervous system? a. to control hormonal activity b. to regulate arousal c. to coordinate with the brain stem to ensure the body is working properly d. to process information received from the central nervous system 48. What does the peripheral nervous system include? Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology a. the somatic and autonomic nervous system b. the brain stem and cortex c. the brain and spinal cord d. the endocrine system 49. Which term refers to the system comprised of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system? a. peripheral nervous system b. central nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. parasympathetic nervous system 50. Which of the following is most likely to be hindered by damage to the somatic nervous system? a. voluntary movement b. thinking and reasoning c. the fight-or-flight response d. breathing and sleeping 51. You read in the newspaper that a parent lifted a car to free their trapped child. Which of the parent's systems was highly activated to perform this feat? a. the central nervous system b. the sympathetic nervous system c. the limbic system d. the parasympathetic nervous system 52. You are home alone late at night when you hear a loud, frightening noise. Your heart begins pounding, your muscles tense up, and your senses sharpen. Which system is causing your reaction? a. the sympathetic nervous system b. the limbic system c. the parasympathetic nervous system d. the central nervous system 53. Christina sits down to relax in her soft chair after a long, tiring day. As she sits reading a book, she grows more relaxed. Her breathing and heart rate slow down and her muscles loosen. Which system is causing Christina’s relaxation? a. the limbic system b. the central nervous system c. the parasympathetic nervous system d. the sympathetic nervous system 54. Which term refers to chemical messengers released directly into the bloodstream? a. an agonist b. an antagonist c. neurotransmitters d. hormones 55. Which of the following controls the endocrine system? Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology a. the limbic system b. the central nervous system c. the somatic nervous system d. the autonomic nervous system 56. If a patient has a tumour on their adrenal glands that is affecting their production of cortisol, which system is most impacted by this tumour? a. the limbic system b. the central nervous system c. the HPA axis d. the parasympathetic nervous system 57. A client takes a medication that causes the neurotransmitter to remain in the synapse rather than being drawn back into the neuron. What process is being affected by the medication? a. neural stimulation b. reuptake c. systematic manipulation d. neural inhibition 58. Dr. Molina wants to increase the amount of serotonin circulating in a client's brain. What specific type of drug will Dr. Molina choose to prescribe? a. an antagonist b. a decelerator c. an agonist d. a placebo 59. Dr. Amin wants to decrease the amount of dopamine circulating in Rashid’s brain. Which specific type of drug will Dr. Amin prescribe? a. a blocker b. an agonist c. an antagonist d. a reuptake inhibitor 60. Which of the following blocks neurotransmitter activity? a. blockers b. agonists c. antagonists d. reuptake inhibitors 61. A doctor prescribed their patient a drug that will produce effects opposite to dopamine. Which type of drug did they prescribe? a. blocker b. agonist c. antagonist d. inverse agonist Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 62. What type of neurotransmitters are synthesized in the nerve? a. excitatory b. agonist c. antagonist d. classic 63. Which two types of neurotransmitters are most relevant to psychopathology? a. monoamines and amino acids b. agonists and antagonists c. excitatory and inhibitory d. steroids and chemicals 64. In addition to reducing anxiety, what broader role does GABA play? a. It reduces overall arousal and tempers emotional responses. b. It eases depression. c. It lessens psychotic behaviours associated with schizophrenia. d. It moderates emergency reactions and alarm responses. 65. Which two neurotransmitters are in the amino acid category of neurotransmitters? a. GABA and dopamine b. dopamine and serotonin c. serotonin and norepinephrine d. GABA and glutamate 66. Although GABA and glutamate are both in the amino acid category of neurotransmitters, they differ in which of the following ways? a. GABA and glutamate have a generalized excitatory function. b. GABA has a generalized excitatory function, and glutamate has a generalized inhibitory function. c. GABA is related to psychopathology, and glutamate is not. d. GABA has a generalized inhibitory function, and glutamate has a generalized excitatory function. 67. Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter that turns on many different neurons? a. GABA b. glutamate c. dopamine d. serotonin 68. Which neurotransmitter is associated with the regulation of mood, behaviour, and thought processes? a. GABA b. norepinephrine c. dopamine d. serotonin 69. In which of the following cases is low serotonin activity NOT likely to lead to destructive or impulsive behaviours? Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology a. if the parasympathetic system is activated b. if adrenalin levels remain high c. if the individual exercises sufficient self-control d. if other biological, social, or psychological influences compensate for the low serotonin activity 70. Sean’s doctor thinks that Sean has low serotonin levels. What sorts of behaviour would lead the doctor to suspect serotonin is low? a. Sean is showing aggression, suicidal ideation, and impulsive behaviour. b. Sean is showing symptoms of schizophrenia. c. Sean is exhibiting anxiety and nervousness. d. Sean is exhibiting mania. 71. The herbal medication St. John’s wort is believed to affect levels of which neurotransmitter? a. GABA b. glutamate c. dopamine d. serotonin 72. Which hallucinogen primarily influences glutamate? a. LSD b. mescaline c. ketamine d. ecstasy 73. Psychedelics have been explored as possible drugs that may reduce symptoms of severe depression, anxiety, and PTSD. What is the current concern with the use of these drugs? a. Little is known about the efficacy of these drugs and the underlying mechanisms. b. These drugs produce high levels of dependency. c. They cause unusual emotional and cognitive experiences. d. They impact the serotonin system. 74. Which neurotransmitter is thought to regulate or moderate certain behavioural tendencies rather than directly influencing specific patterns of behaviour or psychological disorders? a. norepinephrine b. GABA c. serotonin d. dopamine 75. If you are prescribed a drug that stimulates either the alpha-adrenergic or beta-adrenergic receptors, you have likely been prescribed a drug that targets which of the following neurotransmitters? a. GABA b. glutamate c. norepinephrine d. serotonin Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 76. Beta-blockers, prescribed for hypertension, work by reducing the response to which of the following neurotransmitters? a. glutamate b. norepinephrine c. serotonin d. GABA 77. Which of the following has dopamine NOT been implicated in? a. attention deficit hyperactive disorder b. schizophrenia c. disorders of addiction d. anxiety 78. Dopamine is also termed a catecholamine because it resembles the chemical structure of which of the following? a. GABA b. glutamate c. norepinephrine d. serotonin 79. A patient has been given a medication that reduces dopamine; however, doctors suspect that the patient has taken too much of the medication because of the side effects they are showing. Which described side effects could they be showing? a. muscle rigidity, tremors, and impaired judgment b. extreme aggression c. compulsive pleasure-seeking behaviours d. delusions and hallucinations 80. Why is it unlikely that damage in specific structures of the brain itself causes a psychological disorder? a. Psychological disorders typically involve a mix of emotional, behavioural, and cognitive symptoms. b. Genetic factors exert an overriding influence on the development of most psychological disorders. c. Other parts of the brain will compensate for the damage. d. Environmental factors are the major factor in the development of most psychological disorders. 81. In the 1992 studies conducted by Baxter and colleagues, patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) were provided with a type of cognitive-behavioural therapy known as exposure and response prevention but no drugs. What important result did the brain imaging show? a. Neither OCD symptoms nor neurotransmitter function had improved. b. Neurotransmitter circuits are the direct and only cause of OCD. c. The patients’ OCD symptoms improved without changes in neurotransmitter function. d. The neurotransmitter circuits of the brain had been made more typical. 82. What has brain-imaging research revealed about cognitive-behavioural therapy? a. Psychosocial factors such as therapy can change brain circuits. b. Drugs are the most essential means to alter faulty neurotransmitter circuits. c. Neurotransmitters affect how people feel and act. d. Neurotransmitters are a result of how people feel and act, not a cause. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 83. Petrovic and colleagues (2002) conducted an experiment in which participants were subjected to a harmless but painful condition followed by either a placebo or an opioid. What did they find regarding pain relief and pain-related areas of the brain? a. Both the placebo and the opioid drug relieved pain, but only the opioid affected the region responsible for the control of the pain response in the brain. b. The placebo reduced pain but didn’t relieve pain as well as the opioid drug. c. Both the placebo and the opioid drug relieved pain, and they affected overlapping regions in the brain. d. Both the placebo and the opioid drug relieved pain, but they affected completely different regions in the brain. 84. In their study comparing a placebo to opioid drugs, what did Petrovic and colleagues (2002) conclude? a. Psychological factors can affect brain function. b. Drugs should not be prescribed for most painful conditions. c. Pain is more of a psychological phenomenon than it is physical. d. Opioid drugs may relieve pain only through the expectation of pain relief. 85. Dr. Friedmont raised two groups of rhesus monkeys. One group had the ability to control their environment, while the other group had no control. What will likely happen when the monkeys are injected with a drug that produces a feeling of severe anxiety? a. The monkeys raised with a sense of control will be calm, while the monkeys raised without a sense of control will appear very anxious. b. The monkeys raised with a sense of control will appear angry and aggressive, while the monkeys raised without a sense of control will appear very anxious. c. The monkeys raised with a sense of control will appear anxious, while the monkeys raised without a sense of control will appear angry and aggressive. d. The monkeys in both groups will appear angry and aggressive. 86. Insel and colleagues (1988) conducted a study in which rhesus monkeys were raised either with a sense of control or without a sense of control, and they were later exposed to an anxiety-inducing drug. What did the researchers conclude? a. Chemicals such as neurotransmitters influence behaviour in different ways depending upon the psychological history of the individual. b. Chemicals such as neurotransmitters may have little or no effect on behaviours related to anxiety. c. Chemicals such as neurotransmitters have only indirect effects on behaviour. d. Chemicals such as neurotransmitters have few reliable and consistent effects on observed behaviour. 87. The influence of the microbiome of the gut on psychological well-being is often referred to as which of the following? a. microbiota b. psychobiome c. brain-gut psychology d. neuroendocrine influence 88. There is circumstantial evidence to suggest that those frequently taking antibiotics may experience which of the following? a. depression b. anxiety c. mania Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology d. schizophrenia 89. Rescorla’s experiment regarding classical conditioning demonstrated the importance of which of the following factors? a. psychosocial factors b. contiguity c. behaviour d. physiology 90. Which of the following can be created by placing a rat in a cage where occasionally electrical shocks are administered through the floor, over which the rat has no control? a. unconscious learning b. operant conditioning c. stimulus generalization d. learned helplessness 91. It is important to understand the process of how learned helplessness is created in laboratory animals because learned helplessness in animals resembles a psychological disorder in humans. What is this disorder? a. mania b. depression c. schizophrenia d. generalized anxiety disorder 92. Terri believes that no matter how hard she studies, she will never succeed in college. What does this example illustrate? a. learned helplessness b. unconscious learning c. negative reinforcement d. vicarious learning 93. What term did Seligman coin to refer to people’s tendency to display a positive, upbeat attitude even when they are faced with considerable stress and difficulty in their lives? a. positive attribution b. resilience c. optimistic coping style d. learned optimism 94. Which of the following is most likely if Jose has a more optimistic personality than his brother Juan? a. Jose will likely live seven and a half years longer than Juan. b. Jose is less likely to have a heart attack than Juan. c. Jose is likely to have had fewer stressful events in his life so far than Juan. d. Jose is likely to have experienced significantly more stressful events in his life than Juan. 95. Who is responsible for the research that conceptualized the term modelling? a. Donald Meichenbaum Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology b. Albert Bandura c. Aaron Beck d. Martin Seligman 96. What did Albert Bandura teach us about modelling, or observational learning? a. Learning acquired through observation is much more resistant to extinction than behaviour acquired through classical or operant conditioning. b. Much of our learned behaviour depends upon our interactions with those around us. c. Our learned behaviour has much more to do with the types of consequences (reinforcements and punishments) of our actions than with our interactions with those around us. d. It is impossible to learn behavioural patterns without observing those around us. 97. Swedish psychologist Arne Öhman demonstrated that we learn to fear some objects more easily than others. To which concept did his experiments contribute? a. classical conditioning b. observational learning c. prepared learning d. learned helplessness 98. Professor Knots is talking to her class about the tendency for people to fear spiders but not flowers.Which of the following could be an excerpt from her lecture? a. “Over the course of evolution, we have become highly prepared for learning about certain types of objects or situations.” b. “We are taught to fear because of vicarious learning.” c. “We are taught to fear certain stimuli because of frequent exposure.” d. “We fear spiders because we are reinforced in our environment to fear them over other objects.” 99. Blind sight is a good example of cognitive science’s conception of the unconscious. If an individual is affected by blind sight, what is that person doing? a. retrieving explicit memories of episodic experiences b. demonstrating that they have primitive emotional conflicts c. processing and storing information and acting on it without awareness d. using implicit memories of visual stimuli 100. What does research imply about the nature of the unconscious? a. It clearly exists but in a very different way than Freud imagined. b. It clearly exists in much the same way that Freud imagined. c. It clearly exists in much the same way that Jung envisioned it. d. It may or may not exist as it is impossible to study material of which we are not aware. 101. Which of the following is an example of the unconscious as it is conceptualized by cognitive science that is relevant to psychopathology? a. classical conditioning b. implicit memory c. ego development Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology d. vicarious learning 102. What is the Stroop colour-naming paradigm often use to study? a. classical conditioning b. learned helplessness c. implicit cognition d. vicarious learning 103. When the Stroop paradigm was used in a study of women who were chronic dieters or restrained eaters, what did Francis and colleagues (1997) find about the restrained eaters, as compared to women who were not restrained eaters? a. The restrained eaters showed substantially slowed colour naming for food-related words. b. The restrained eaters were able to name significantly more food-related words. c. The restrained eaters showed substantially faster colour naming for food-related words. d. The restrained eaters were able to name significantly fewer food-related words. 104. What did Aaron Beck, one of the originators of cognitive-behavioural therapy, assume that depression and learned helplessness are associated with? a. an interaction between maladaptive neurotransmitter pathways and behaviours b. thinking too much about one’s failures in life c. unconscious thoughts that lead to maladaptive life situations d. faulty attributions and attitudes 105. Which therapy approach, developed by Albert Ellis, emphasizes cognitive procedures and techniques focused on irrational beliefs? a. cognitive-behavioural therapy b. rational-emotive therapy c. self-instructional training d. relaxation therapy 106. What did Albert Ellis believe were at the root of maladaptive feelings and behaviour? a. dysfunctional relationships b. attention control problems c. faulty attributions d. irrational beliefs 107. Donald Meichenbaum developed self-instructional training for the treatment of depression. What is the goal of this treatment? a. to help the client develop more meaningful interpersonal relationships on their own b. to help the client identify unconscious conflicts from childhood c. to help the client identify faulty attributions regarding negative life events d. to help the client modify what they say to themselves about the consequences of their behaviour 108. Donald Meichenbaum developed self-instructional training by combining techniques from which therapies? a. psychodynamic and behaviour b. cognitive and humanistic Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology c. humanistic and behaviour d. psychodynamic and humanistic 109. A patient treated for an anxiety disorder has been directed to monitor their thoughts and stop thinking so much about how many things can go wrong. At the same time, they are practising relaxation exercises and trying to spend more time in situations that they fear. What type of treatment are they receiving? a. cognitive-behavioural therapy b. behavioural reconditioning c. classical conditioning d. psychoanalytic therapy 110. Which term refers to the process of uncovering automatic thoughts and developing a different set of attitudes and attributions? a. social learning b. behavioural reconditioning c. classical conditioning d. cognitive restructuring 111. You are standing on your roof and almost fall off. In this instance, you feel an incredible surge of arousal. Which term refers to the alarm reaction that activates during potentially life-threatening emergencies? a. fear b. hostility c. flight or fight d. adrenaline 112. The definition of emotion, which is agreed upon by most researchers, includes an external event, a feeling state, a behaviour, and which of the following? a. fear b. hostility c. expectation d. physiological response 113. What is the difference between emotions and mood? a. Emotions are usually temporary states, whereas mood is a more persistent period of affect. b. Emotion and mood can be used interchangeably. c. Mood is a temporary state, whereas emotions last for a longer period of time. d. Mood is used to describe pathological states of emotion. 114. Which of the following describes affect? a. temporary states lasting from several minutes to several hours in response to an external event b. a persistent period of emotionality c. an enduring pathological state of emotion d. a momentary emotional tone that accompanies what we say or do 115. What is emotion generally thought to comprise? Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology a. behaviour, physiology, and mood b. behaviour, physiology, and cognition c. mood and affect d. cognition, behaviour, and affect 116. Felix has enduring states of depression that last for persistent periods of time. Which term best describes Felix’s persistent state of depression? a. mood b. emotion c. affect d. cognition 117. Richard Lazarus is noted for adding which of the following to the cognitive aspects of emotion? a. mood b. belief c. behaviour d. appraisal 118. What do the evil eye, the Latin American disorder susto, and the Haitian phenomenon of voodoo death all exemplify? a. unsubstantiated myths that people can become ill without physical cause b. the influence of the social and cultural environment on our physical and psychological health c. isolated cultural phenomena with little practical significance d. the power of the supernatural model of psychopathology 119. Why are women more likely than men to suffer from insect phobias? a. because of cultural and gender expectations b. because of their traditional role in the home, where they are more likely to encounter insects c. because of differences in neurochemical pathways d. because of hormonal differences 120. What is one reason why men are less likely than women to experience depression in response to stress? a. Men are more likely to engage in activity to take their minds off the negative event. b. Men are more likely to drink alcohol to relieve stress. c. Men are more likely to think about the negative event afterward and solve the problem. d. Men are less likely to experience stressful events in the first place. 121. Michael and Marie lost their parents in a tragic accident. Marie has developed depression while Michael has not. Dr. Guthrie thinks that the difference is due to the siblings’ genders. Which of the following is Dr. Guthrie likely to cite to support her claim? a. Men have fewer social relationships than women, which may protect them from additional stress. b. When experiencing a negative event, women tend to ruminate about it and to blame themselves. c. Men are less likely to self-medicate their depressive feelings with alcohol. d. Men are more likely to simply endure feelings of depression, which makes the feelings pass more quickly. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 122. Research by Felmingham and Bryant (2012) found that after exposure therapy for PTSD, both men and women benefited, but women maintained their gains significantly better at the follow-up period. What was the proposed reason for this difference? a. Women were more likely to continue to discuss the emotion, thus prolonging the exposure compared to men. b. Men were less likely to reflect on therapy as being a positive experience than did women. c. Men are less likely to practise the skills learned in therapy than women. d. The ability of women to recall emotional memories somewhat better than men may facilitate emotional processing and long-term gains. 123. Research by Taylor described a unique way in which women cope with stress through nurturing behaviour and forming alliances (particularly with other females). This response was called which of the following? a. familial responding b. tend and befriend c. affiliative behaviour d. caregiving coping 124. What has research found about people who have many social contacts and live their lives continually interacting with others? a. They tend to ruminate about negative life events less often. b. They tend to have lower overall rates of alcohol use disorder. c. They tend to live longer and healthier lives. d. They tend to be at a higher risk for some psychological disorders such as dependency. 125. Research has demonstrated that it is not just the absolute number of social contacts that is important in predicting health, but the perception of which of the following? a. physical health b. health behaviours c. loneliness d. substance use 126. In their research exposing subjects to the virus that causes the common cold, what did Cohen and colleagues (1997) demonstrate? a. The quality of social contact predicted whether the individual would contract a cold, but the frequency of social contact did not. b. The frequency of social contact and chances of contracting a cold were unrelated. c. The less frequent the individual’s social contact, the lower the chances of contracting a cold. d. The greater the extent of an individual’s social ties, the lower the chances of contracting a cold. 127. Research by Grant and colleagues (1988) found that older adults who have fewer social contacts were more likely to suffer from depression than those who have more frequent social contacts. If the individuals with fewer social contacts became physically ill, what tended to happen? a. They were less likely to ask their families for support. b. They were even less likely to receive support from their families. c. They were more likely to receive substantial social support from their families than those who were not ill. d. They were more likely to recover from the depression. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 128. Depression seems to appear in all cultures but tends to be characterized by different symptoms within individual cultures. For example, individuals from Asian cultures tend to report fewer affective and cognitive symptoms of depression. What is the most likely cause of this disparity? a. the perception in many Asian cultures that the affective expression of depression is self-centred and threatening to the social structure b. the differences in diagnostic measures used in different cultures c. a history of oppression, which deters reporting d. the genetic differences between individuals living in different cultures 129. According to the text, the elevated rates of some psychological disorders in Indigenous individuals are probably due to the contributions of poverty and another factor. What is this second factor? a. differences in diagnostic criteria used in assessments of Indigenous individuals b. genetic differences between Indigenous individuals and non-Indigenous individuals c. a history of oppression or generational trauma d. cultural differences in the expression of mental illnesses 130. Because psychological disorders are still associated with social stigma, which of the following becomes more likely to happen? a. People with psychological disorders will not seek and receive the treatment and support of others that are most needed for recovery. b. People with psychological disorders will be ignored by mental health professionals when they seek help. c. People with psychological disorders will be far more easily treated than those with physical disorders. d. People with psychological disorders will seek help for their disorders but be more likely to receive insufficient treatment than those with physical illness. 131. According to a lifespan psychopathologist, to understand a patient’s disorder, what must one also understand? a. how the individual has resolved interpersonal conflict throughout life b. how experiences during different periods of development may influence the individual’s vulnerability to some psychological disorders c. how the individual mastered key developmental tasks throughout various life stages d. how the individual developed during psychosexual stages 132. When therapists ask patients how they are feeling and how they are experiencing their disorder today, patients are essentially taking snapshots of their lives at that moment. Who considers this approach incomplete in our understanding of psychopathology? a. lifespan psychopathologists b. humanists c. cognitive behaviourists d. existentialists 133. Kolb and colleagues (2003) exposed juvenile, adult, and very old animals to challenging and complex environments. What did they find about this kind of environment? a. It had different effects on the animals’ brains depending on their developmental stage. b. It had a negative effect on the older animals’ brains but had no effect on the younger animals. c. It had a negative effect on the young animals’ cognitive functioning when they became adults. d. It had positive effects on the cognitive functioning of all the animals, regardless of age. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 134. Dr. Tran is explaining that sleep problems can be a symptom of many different psychological disorders. What phenomenon is she describing? a. pathogenesis b. equifinality c. orthogonal causation d. psychopathology 135. Like a fever, a particular behaviour or disorder may have several causes. What is the name of this principle from a developmental viewpoint? a. equifinality b. psychopathology c. causation d. pathogenesis 136. What does the term equifinality refer to? a. the fact that many causes of psychopathology are equal in influence b. the fact that all forms of psychopathology have similar causes c. the fact that a number of paths can lead to the same outcome d. the fact that the same path can lead to different outcomes
137. Describe the diathesis–stress model. Use the model to explain how one monozygotic twin has clinical depression while the other does not. 138. Describe the basic components of the reciprocal gene–environment model. Describe the method and findings of one study described in the text that illustrates this model. How might this model be misinterpreted by some people? 139. Identify and describe the two major components of the peripheral nervous system and discuss their roles in various psychological disorders. Explain how the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions often operate in a complementary fashion during periods of stress. 140. Psychoactive medications (drugs that impact our thoughts, emotions, and behaviour) usually work as either agonists or antagonists for various neurotransmitters. Explain how both an agonist and an antagonist operate on a neurotransmitter. Explain the process of reuptake inhibition and the effect it has on a neurotransmitter. 141. Name three important neurotransmitters and describe what impact each one is thought to have on human experience. 142. Describe learned helplessness. How is it developed in laboratory animals and how does it help us to understand human depression? 143. Explain the difference between the modern cognitive science view of the unconscious and the Freudian idea of the unconscious. 144. What does the cognitive-behavioural model assume to be the cause of depression, and what basic therapy strategy is used in this model for depressed patients? What are “automatic thoughts” and from where do they arise? Give an illustrative example. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 145. Socialization is considered one of the most important parts of human experience. Describe gender differences in animal phobias, depression, and eating disorders. Give examples of how differential gender socialization may contribute to these differences. 146. Describe the concept of equifinality. What does this concept say regarding the causes of psychopathology?
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. d Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 26. b 27. b 28. d 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. d 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. d 46. c 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. b Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 52. a 53. c 54. d 55. d 56. c 57. b 58. c 59. c 60. c 61. d 62. d 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. d 67. b 68. d 69. d 70. a 71. d 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. c 76. b Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 77. d 78. c 79. a 80. a 81. d 82. a 83. c 84. a 85. b 86. a 87. b 88. a 89. b 90. d 91. b 92. a 93. d 94. a 95. b 96. b 97. c 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. b 102. c Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 103. a 104. d 105. b 106. d 107. d 108. a 109. a 110. d 111. c 112. d 113. a 114. d 115. b 116. a 117. d 118. b 119. a 120. a 121. b 122. d 123. b 124. c 125. c 126. d 127. c Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 02: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology 128. a 129. c 130. a 131. b 132. a 133. a 134. b 135. a 136. c 137. Student responses will vary. 138. Student responses will vary. 139. Student responses will vary. 140. Student responses will vary. 141. Student responses will vary. 142. Student responses will vary. 143. Student responses will vary. 144. Student responses will vary. 145. Student responses will vary. 146. Student responses will vary.
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What do we call the systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social factors in a person with a possible psychological disorder? a. clinical interpretation b. clinical diagnosis c. clinical assessment d. clinical standardization 2. Which of the following is NOT part of a clinical assessment? a. evaluation of financial factors b. evaluation of biological factors c. evaluation of social factors d. evaluation of psychological factors 3. What do we call the process of determining whether an individual’s symptoms meet the criteria for a specific psychological disorder? a. prognosis b. diagnosis c. analysis d. classification 4. What is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders? a. a guide for training psychology students in assessment techniques b. a textbook about the etiology of psychological disorders c. a classification system for mental illnesses d. an encyclopedia of treatment approaches for psychological disorders 5. What organization publishes the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders? a. the International Medical Association b. the American Psychological Association c. the American Psychiatric Association d. the National Institute of Mental Health 6. For what purpose does the process of clinical assessment result in narrowing the focus? a. to consider a broad range of problems b. to focus on inter- and intra-personal problems equally c. to concentrate on problem areas that seem most relevant d. to uncover all possible causes of stress in the person’s life 7. The process of clinical assessment in psychopathology has been likened to which of the following? a. a mystery b. a funnel c. a scale d. a broom Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis 8. A patient who had recurrent headaches, fatigue, and loss of appetite received different diagnoses from several psychiatrists. In terms of assessment, what type of problem does this example illustrate? a. a problem with classification b. a problem with reliability c. a problem with validity d. a problem with standardization 9. When Ms. Rath was seeking employment, a job consultant gave her a standard IQ test. The following year, the same consultant gave Ms. Rath the same IQ test. Ms. Rath’s score was similar on both occasions. What does this indicate? a. The test has concurrent validity. b. The test has long-term validity. c. The test has interrater reliability. d. The test has test–retest reliability. 10. Naema is given a diagnosis of major depressive disorder by her psychologist and wants another opinion. After seeing a psychiatrist, the diagnosis is confirmed. What can be said about the diagnoses of the psychologist and psychiatrist? a. They have predictive validity. b. They have test–retest reliability. c. They have interrater reliability. d. They have concurrent validity. 11. Dr. Evans conducts a study that showed his colleague’s depression screening tool does NOT predict depressive symptoms. What is the problem with the depression screening tool? a. validity b. standardization c. reliability d. classification 12. Which term best describes an assessment that measures what it is intended to measure? a. valid b. reliable c. standardized d. clinical 13. An IQ test indicates a level of intelligence that closely corresponds with a student’s high school grades and with teachers’ ratings of the student’s intelligence. In this instance, what does this IQ test have? a. concurrent validity b. reliability c. predictive validity d. standardization 14. A new IQ test is available, but it fails to inform clinicians about what will happen regarding success in school for the individuals that take the test. What is missing in this assessment? a. test–retest reliability Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis b. concurrent validity c. standardization d. predictive validity 15. Mr. Lopez, a 40-year-old recent immigrant to Canada, is learning to speak English. He applies for a job and is given a test. His score is compared with those of other test takers who are mostly college graduates whose native language is English. Mr. Lopez thinks this is unfair. What kind of problem does this situation illustrate? a. a problem with classification b. a problem with standardization c. a problem with validity d. a problem with reliability 16. A clinician completes an assessment and states that the client's scores were consistent with those of a group of people who are similar to the client in gender, age, and cultural background. What would the clinician be using to make this claim? a. interrater reliability b. subjective judgment c. norms d. extraneous factors 17. As part of a psychological assessment, a mental status exam is often used to find out how a person thinks, feels, and behaves. What is the primary purpose of a mental status exam? a. to determine what type of treatment should be used b. to determine whether a psychological disorder might be present c. to determine whether the individual also has a medical condition d. to determine which medication would be most effective 18. How is a mental status exam related to a clinical interview? a. A mental status exam score is important information for hospitalizations. b. A mental status exam is used to elicit spontaneous information that is not usually obtained in the interview. c. A mental status exam is administered immediately following the interview. d. A mental status exam is used to organize the information obtained during the interview. 19. In a mental status exam, a clinician can make a rough estimate of the patient’s intellectual functioning. What aspects of intellectual functioning does the clinician attempt to detect by listening to the patient’s speech? a. the ability to talk about their problems logically and objectively b. insight into their problems c. the tendency to use abstractions and metaphors d. the ability to speak slowly and clearly 20. Which of the following is NOT a category covered in a mental status exam? a. physical symptoms b. behaviour c. appearance d. intellectual functioning Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis 21. With regard to a mental status exam, which of the following questions is NOT related to the concept of sensorium? a. Who are you? b. Where are you? c. How old are you? d. What is today’s date? 22. Which of the following is a part of the thought processes component of a mental status exam? a. noting a person’s vocabulary b. noting the appropriateness of a person’s attire c. noting a person’s mood d. noting the content of what a person is saying 23. The term sensorium refers to part of the mental status exam. What does sensorium mean? a. a person’s impairment in visual or auditory functioning b. a person’s general awareness of their surroundings c. a person’s level of emotional sensitivity d. a person’s ability to make reasonable judgments 24. Determining mood and affect is an important part of the mental status exam. Although both terms refer to feeling states of the individual, how does mood differ from affect? a. Mood is more changeable than affect. b. Mood is more frequent than affect. c. Mood is more pervasive than affect. d. Mood is more severe than affect. 25. Dr. Ashton has assessed Mr. Tindale and sees that while Mr. Tindale knows his name and the date, he doesn’t know where he is. Dr. Ashton writes something in Mr. Tindale’s chart that the nurses are having trouble reading. What do you think Dr. Ashton wrote? a. “patient oriented times one” b. “patient oriented times two” c. “patient oriented times three” d. “patient sensorium clear” 26. Dr. Wu is conducting a mental status exam on Marek. When he asks Marek to talk about the death of his sister, Marek begins to laugh uncontrollably. Based on this laughter, what does Dr. Wu note? a. Marek is exhibiting atypical mood. b. Marek is exhibiting atypical affect. c. Marek is exhibiting atypical sensorium. d. Marek is exhibiting atypical behaviour. 27. Asking specific questions—such as “Who are you?” “Where are you?” and “What’s the weather like today?”—is an important part of a mental status exam. What component of the exam are such questions addressing? a. the intellectual functioning component b. the mood and affect component Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis c. the thought process component d. the sensorium component 28. How do semistructured interviews differ from unstructured interviews? a. In the semistructured format, clinicians develop their own methods of collecting necessary information; in the unstructured interview, the clinician does not develop their own method of collecting unnecessary information. b. In the semistructured format, clinicians try to keep the client from straying from specific issues identified by the therapist as essential; in the unstructured interview, these rules are not in place. c. In the semistructured format, clinicians rely on the organizational structure of a mental status exam; in the unstructured interview, they do not use mental status exams. d. In the semistructured format, clinicians use questions that have been tested to elicit useful information in a consistent manner; in the unstructured interview, they do not. 29. A clinician follows a general outline of questions designed to gather essential information but is free to ask the questions in any particular order and to branch off into other directions to follow up on clinically important information. What type of interview is being used in this example? a. an unstructured interview b. a structured interview c. a behavioural interview d. a semistructured interview 30. What is a disadvantage of semistructured interviews? a. They don’t allow for comparison with similar individuals. b. They initiate treatment plans. c. They decrease confidentiality. d. They may inhibit the patient from volunteering useful information. 31. If a clinician deviates from a semistructured interview, what type of assessment are they likely using? a. an unstructured interview assessment b. naturalistic observations c. a conversational inventory assessment d. an individual-engagement therapeutic assessment 32. Which of the following medical conditions might also produce symptoms that mimic anxiety disorders, such as generalized anxiety disorder? a. hyperthyroidism b. cocaine withdrawal c. heart attack d. fibromyalgia 33. A client reports they have been feeling depressed. When asked if they have any medical conditions, they report that they do but cannot remember which one. What is a likely condition based on what is known about the links between medical conditions and psychological disorders? a. brain tumour b. hyperthyroidism Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis c. cocaine withdrawal d. hypothyroidism 34. Many problems presenting as disorders of behaviour, cognition, or mood may, on careful physical examination, have a clear relationship to which of the following? a. poor interpersonal relationships b. addiction c. a temporary toxic state d. a history of trauma 35. A clinical psychologist decides to conduct a behavioural assessment of a five-year-old, instead of a clinical interview, after her parents report that she has had repeated and often physical conflicts with other children on the playground. Why is a behavioural assessment preferable in this case? a. The parents could be exaggerating the problem. b. A structured interview might be too stressful for a young child. c. Young children are less able to verbally communicate their problems and experiences. d. Young children often deliberately withhold information from authority figures. 36. What are the ABCs of behavioural observation? a. antecedent, behaviour, consequences b. affect, behaviour, consequences c. antecedent, behaviour, causes d. affect, behaviour, cognition 37. Researcher David Wolfe used contrived situations to assess the emotional reactions of parents with a history of abuse toward their children. His goal of creating these situations was to use the observations to develop which of the following? a. an interview b. an observable behaviour c. target behaviour d. treatment plans 38. A clinician asks a child to sit at a desk in a simulated classroom situation to complete a difficult task. The clinician is using this technique to discover the reasons the child has been engaging in self-hitting (self-injurious) behaviour. In behavioural assessment terms, what type of behaviour has the self-hitting been identified as? a. measurable behaviour b. target behaviour c. resultant behaviour d. observable behaviour 39. Compared with informal observation, what is an advantage of formal observation? a. Formal observations provide more perspective because they are written after an open-ended, out-of-office interview in a non-clinical setting. b. Formal observations rarely require the use of naturalistic settings. c. Formal observations are more reliable because of the focus on behaviours that are both observable and measurable. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis d. Formal observations give more information about an individual because they require a three-hour minimum time commitment. 40. When behaviours only occur in private, what type of observation is essential? a. informal observation b. formal observation c. self-monitoring d. naturalistic observation 41. What has the reactivity phenomenon of self-monitoring procedures been shown to do? a. increase desired behaviours b. decrease undesired behaviours c. increase emotional responses to external stressors d. both increase desired behaviours and decrease undesired behaviours 42. With respect to monitoring procedures, which of the following is an example of the reactivity phenomenon? a. On parents’ visiting day in a classroom, the previously well-behaved children continue to show good behaviour. b. A man quits smoking after his father dies of lung cancer. c. After joining a fitness club, a woman stops exercising in her home and instead walks two kilometres a day by herself. d. A man begins to eat less after joining a clinic weight-loss program in which each participant’s weight is recorded weekly by a staff member. 43. What assessment tools are used before treatment and periodically during treatment to assess changes in behaviour? a. behaviour rating scales b. mental status examination c. psychological testing d. projective testing 44. Many popular magazines include “psychological” or “personality” tests to help readers better understand themselves or others. How does the text view most of these tests? a. They are reliable. b. They are for entertainment only. c. They are informative and educational. d. They are valid. 45. Dr. Gallagher has decided to use a projective test on a client to explore the client’s unconscious. Why has Dr. Gallagher chosen a projective test in this case? a. It is important to use tests that are structured, objective, and valid. b. Many people are too embarrassed to reveal highly personal information openly. c. By definition, unconscious processes can only be measured through projection onto ambiguous stimuli. d. Clinical interviews are always insufficient to reveal a person’s problems. 46. When an individual describes what they see in the ambiguous stimuli of the Rorschach test, what is assumed to be Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis revealed? a. the person’s preconscious thoughts b. the person’s unconscious thoughts c. the person’s conscious thoughts d. the person’s subconscious thoughts 47. Dr. Gupta is a psychoanalytic therapist who wants to assess the unconscious thoughts and feelings of a patient. What type of test would Dr. Gupta most likely use? a. the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test b. the Rhythm Test c. the MMPI d. the Thematic Apperception Test 48. Why was the Comprehensive System for administering and scoring the Rorschach inkblot test developed? a. It was discovered that interrater reliability had increased significantly. b. The previous scoring system was found to be difficult and time consuming. c. Hermann Rorschach was dissatisfied with the way his test was being administered. d. There was a lack of standardized procedures, which can affect the way the test-taker responds to the questions. 49. The Thematic Apperception Test differs from the Rorschach inkblot test in that the person taking the TAT is asked to use their imagination to do which of the following? a. tell a dramatic story about a picture b. tell how a descriptive sentence applies to them c. identify the theme that is common to a set of pictures d. speculate about the relationships between various people shown in a picture 50. A therapist has chosen to employ the Thematic Apperception Test with one of their clients. What is the most likely reason for this decision? a. He wants to reveal their unconscious mental processes in their stories. b. He wants to develop a comprehensive, empirically sound clinical intervention for his client. c. He wants to allow his client to perform and score a private self-assessment. d. He wants to use the test to diagnose the client. 51. Which of the following is a projective test? a. the WAIS b. the MMPI c. the TAT d. the PCL-R 52. What is one problem with projective tests? a. They are often too rigid. b. They make participants feel uncomfortable. c. They are expensive to administer. d. They are used inconsistently across clinicians. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis 53. In contrast to projective tests, personality inventories such as the MMPI are based on the collection and evaluation of data. What type of approach is this? a. an analytic approach b. a predictive approach c. an empirical approach d. a descriptive approach 54. In contrast to projective tests, which rely heavily on theory for an interpretation, what are the MMPI and similar inventories based on? a. skills a person needs to function in day-to-day life b. clinical experience and intuition c. the collection and evaluation of data d. the person’s psychiatric and social history 55. Dr. DuPont is researching an assessment instrument. Which of the following is she most likely conducting research on? a. the MMPI b. the TAT c. the Rorschach inkblot test d. the PCL-R 56. How does the assessment concept known as reliability increase in the MMPI? a. The MMPI is often interpreted by computer. b. The MMPI is non-sexist. c. The MMPI is well-researched. d. The MMPI is made up of many scales. 57. What is used to assess results on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)? a. the correspondence between the individual’s pattern of answers and that of people diagnosed with a specific disorder b. the frequency at which the individual refers to specific ideas, such as aggression or sexuality c. the degree of emotionality associated with results d. the frequency with which the individual responds to questions that reflect aggression or some other concept 58. On which scale of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) would you expect an antisocial and dishonest person to get a high score? a. paranoia scale b. psychopathic deviate scale c. psychasthenia scale d. social introversion scale 59. Suppose an individual taking the MMPI is very guarded and defensive. On which scale will they most likely obtain an elevated score? a. Correction (K) b. Infrequency (F) Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis c. Back F (Fb) d. Lie (L) 60. Suppose an individual taking the MMPI falsifies answers to look good. On which scale will they most likely have a high score? a. Correction (K) b. Infrequency (F) c. Superlative Self-Presentation (S) d. Lie (L) 61. While taking the MMPI, James tried to give himself an unrealistic positive image by falsifying answers and trying to appear as though he had no psychological problems. On which scale(s) did James receive a high score? a. L (Lie), K (Correction), and F (Infrequency) scales b. F (Infrequency) scale c. K (Correction) scale d. L (Lie) and K (Correction) scales 62. Which of the following was a cause of problems with the original version of the MMPI? a. the lack of standardized instructions for administration b. clinicians’ subjective interpretations of scale scores c. selective sampling for the standardization group and the biased wording of questions d. low reliability and validity 63. Although the MMPI has been researched excessively, some researchers stated which of the following caution regarding the assessment? a. There is a lack of standardized instructions for administration. b. The scores are based on subjective clinician interpretation. c. The wording in the MMPI is biased for certain populations. d. The information in the MMPI may not change how clients are treated and may not improve their outcomes. 64. Individuals who are cunning and manipulative pathological liars would be unlikely to respond truthfully on a selfreport measure of personality. Hare’s PCL-R is an instrument that measures the characteristics of psychopathy. What does Hare’s PCL-R use? a. behavioural observation in the person’s natural environment b. interviews with the client, along with material from institutional files and people close to the person c. projective tests to tap into unconscious processes d. lie detector equipment along with a verbal form of the personality test 65. Hare’s PCL-R is an instrument that measures the characteristics of which of the following? a. panic attacks b. psychopathy c. paranoia d. psychasthenia 66. The calculation of an IQ, previously done by using a child’s mental age, is now done by using a deviation IQ. What is Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis the child’s score now compared with? a. the scores of others who took the test at the same time b. the scores of others in the same grade c. the scores of others with the same level of intelligence d. the scores of others of the same age 67. Dividing mental age by a child’s chronological age and multiplying by 100 leads to which of the following scores? a. intelligence quotient (IQ) b. deviation IQ c. WAIS score d. WISC score 68. The Wechsler tests include verbal and which other type of scales? a. vocabulary b. knowledge of facts c. performance d. verbal reasoning 69. In both American and Canadian samples, the adult version of the Wechsler intelligence test have been found to tap four distinct intellectual abilities. Which of the following is NOT one of these abilities? a. verbal comprehension b. perceptual organization c. working memory d. reasoning speed 70. What is the focus of the continuing controversy about the WAIS? a. whether the WAIS tests have portability to people from other countries and cultures b. whether the WAIS tests measure emotional intelligence c. whether the WAIS tests measure distinct cognitive skills d. whether the WAIS tests should be used with adults and children 71. What does an IQ score tell us? a. an individual’s intelligence b. an individual’s emotional intelligence c. an individual’s likelihood of doing well in the educational system d. an individual’s attentional capacity 72. What kind of test is the Stanford-Binet test? a. a personality test b. a projective test c. an intelligence test d. a mental status test 73. What have researchers found regarding the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) 5? a. There are significant gender differences on this test that are not observed on other IQ tests. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis b. Scores on this test do not predict academic success well at all. c. The WISC is fully portable across cultural boundaries. d. That caution should be taken in using these tests with cultural groups outside those on whom the test was normed. 74. Which technique would be appropriate if you wanted to look for possible cognitive impairments in a client? a. MMPI b. PET scan c. WAIS-IV d. a projective test 75. What is a limitation of IQ tests? a. They do not assess a person’s ability to adapt to the environment or generate new ideas. b. They do not provide predictive validity with respect to academic success. c. They do not measure abilities such as attention and memory. d. They do not measure abilities such as reasoning and perception. 76. What are neuropsychological tests used to assess? a. whether an individual might have had a psychotic episode b. whether an individual might have a brain dysfunction c. whether an individual might have an intellectual development disorder d. whether an individual might be in a depressed state 77. If it were important to determine the exact location of brain impairment, which of the following would most likely be used? a. the Thematic Apperception Test b. the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery c. the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale d. the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test 78. A clinician suspects brain dysfunction in a seven-year-old based on a neuropsychological test they administered. Which test was the child likely given? a. the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery b. the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery c. the Tactile Performance Test d. the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test 79. One of the problems of using neuropsychological tests to detect organic damage and cognitive disorders involves the possibility of false negatives. Which of the following is most likely to result from a false negative? a. A patient undergoes completely unnecessary and expensive procedures. b. A clinician misses an important medical problem that needs to be treated. c. A patient is diagnosed with a condition that does not exist. d. Cell damage occurs due to repeated radiation exposure. 80. Why are neuropsychological tests used? Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis a. to map blood flow and other metabolic activity in the brain b. to help differentiate those who have a given cognitive disorder from those people who do not c. to predict who will develop a specific cognitive disorder five or ten years later d. to take accurate pictures of brain structure and function 81. Sarah’s family doctor has suggested to her parents that they see a specialist to have a neuropsychological test completed. What is this type of test intended to do? a. use imaging to assess brain structure and/or function b. determine the possible contribution of brain impairment to her condition c. ascertain the structure and patterns of cognition d. assess long-standing patterns of behaviour 82. Marguerite is given a neuropsychological test. Although her test results indicate that she has no brain dysfunction, she actually does have a brain tumour. Her test results indicate a false negative. What is the most likely outcome? a. Marguerite will become discouraged and put off following up on medical care. b. Marguerite may end up paying for costly treatment that is not necessary. c. Marguerite will not get the treatment she needs. d. Marguerite may seek out an additional medical opinion. 83. Although false positives and false negatives may occur in neuropsychological testing, the issue is mitigated in which of the following ways? a. As neuropsychological tests are primarily used as screening, they are routinely paired with other assessments. b. Neurological damage can be countered through the plasticity of the brain, so there is less concern. c. The disorders that neuropsychological tests identify are mild, so there is little concern about accuracy. d. The only issue with false positives and false negatives is a false sense of well-being, which can be countered with psychotherapy. 84. How does the CAT scan neuroimaging technique work? a. It uses X-rays to portray brain structures. b. It uses magnetic fields to portray brain structures. c. It follows tracer elements in the nervous system. d. It uses magnetic fields to portray brain functions. 85. What is the main difference between neuropsychological tests and neuroimaging techniques? a. Neuropsychological tests help identify the location of the brain dysfunction, whereas neuroimaging shows us the structure and functioning of the brain. b. Neuropsychological tests help identify the structure and functioning of the brain, whereas neuroimaging shows us the location of the brain dysfunction. c. Neuropsychological tests help identify the nature of the brain dysfunction, whereas neuroimaging shows us the reasons for the brain dysfunction. d. Neuropsychological tests help identify patterns of dysfunctional cognitions, whereas neuroimaging shows us the structure of dysfunctional cognitions. 86. What have recent research studies used PET scans for? a. to look at patterns of brain metabolism that might be associated with different disorders Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis b. to locate brain tumours and injuries c. to detect tissue variations associated with disorders d. to locate abnormalities in the structure or shape of the brain 87. Which neuroimaging device would be used to examine dopamine activity in individuals with bipolar disorder? a. CAT b. MRI c. PET d. TAT 88. Which of the following refers to an imaging technique that uses a radioactive tracer to measure the functioning of parts of the brain? a. a PET scan b. a CT scan c. a CAT scan d. an MRI scan 89. Which of the following is single photon emission computed tomography most similar to in technique and purpose? a. EEG b. MRI c. CAT d. PET 90. Despite the exciting uses of PET for understanding psychopathology, PET is limited in availability. What is a reason for the limited accessibility? a. Special facilities must be onsite so that the radioactive tracers can be transported quickly. b. The procedure takes hours to complete, limiting the number of people that can be scanned in one day. c. PET is only a screening tool and must be used in conjunction with another, more elaborate, measure. d. Only a few people are trained in using PET technology. 91. How does the fMRI procedure differ from the traditional MRI? a. The fMRI procedure uses X-rays to show the brain from different angles. b. The fMRI procedure measures brain metabolism. c. The fMRI procedure measures brain wave activity. d. The fMRI procedure can take pictures of the brain at work, recording changes from one second to the next. 92. In studies using fMRI, how did post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) participants who report primarily dissociative (numbing-type) responses to listening to scripts about their traumas compare with PTSD participants who experienced primarily hyperarousal patterns to trauma scripts? a. They had more atrophied parts of the brain. b. They had less electrical activity in the limbic system. c. They had slower and more irregular delta waves. d. They had very different patterns of brain activation. 93. Why has fMRI largely replaced PET scans in leading brain-imaging centres? Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis a. fMRI is cheaper than PET. b. fMRI allows researchers to see the immediate response of the brain. c. fMRI is easier to implement than PET. d. fMRI is more accurate than PET. 94. Which of the following is used to measure electrical activity in the brain? a. an electroencephalograph b. an electrocardiograph c. an electromyogram d. an electroencephalogram 95. A researcher wants to examine brain wave patterns associated with seizures. What should they use? a. a CAT scan b. an EEG c. a PET scan d. an MRI 96. Many types of stress-reduction treatments, through the process of relaxation, attempt to increase the frequency of which wave pattern? a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. theta 97. Which form of assessment measures changes in the nervous system that reflect emotional or psychological events? a. neuropsychological b. psychological c. psychophysiological d. neuroimaging 98. Why is assessing psychophysiological responding very important in the assessment of many sexual dysfunctions and disorders? a. Misdiagnosis of sexual disorders can be devastating for the patient. b. It avoids having to ask patients direct and possibly embarrassing questions about their sexuality. c. Many people are unaware that they have a true sexual disorder. d. Sometimes the individual is unaware of their specific patterns of sexual arousal. 99. A patient being treated for hypertension is given blood pressure readings on a continuous basis. The goal is to have the patient learn to regulate their blood pressure responses. What type of physiological measurement is the patient undergoing? a. biofeedback b. an electrocardiograph c. an electromyogram d. an electroencephalogram Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis 100. What is the main goal of a prognosis? a. to provide information about the likely course of the disorder b. to gain clinical experience c. to examine diagnosis options available to the patient d. to determine the client’s desire to reform 101. What do the terms taxonomy and nosology refer to? a. the classification of entities or disorders in a scientific context b. the process of identifying specific psychological disorders c. the process of testing the validity and reliability of a classification system d. the measurement of changes in the nervous system 102. The names anxiety disorders and mood disorders fall under which of the following terms in classification systems? a. taxonomy b. nosology c. nomenclature d. clinical description 103. Which classification system is most used worldwide? a. ICD-11 b. DSM-5-TR c. DSM-III d. WHO-7 104. How does the ICD differ from the DSM? a. The ICD classifies only neurodevelopmental disorders. b. The ICD is also used to categorize health conditions. c. There are no differences other than the fact that the ICD is published by the WHO and the DSM is published by the APA. d. The DSM is more valid and reliable than the ICD. 105. What does the classical categorical approach to diagnosis assume about each person with a particular disorder? a. They will experience very few of the same symptoms. b. They will respond to the same treatments equally. c. They will be helped by recognizing the cause of the disorder. d. They will experience the same symptoms with little or no variation. 106. What does the dimensional approach to classification of mental disorders provide that the categorical approach does not? a. The dimensional system provides scales that indicate the degree to which patients are experiencing various cognitions, moods, and behaviours. b. The dimensional system provides diagnostic labels based on the presence of specific symptoms. c. The dimensional system provides lists of symptoms that are associated with all the forms of psychopathology that are currently believed to exist. d. The dimensional system provides information that is used to determine the cause and treatment of the disorder. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis 107. Which approach allows some variation in symptoms without changing classification? a. a categorical approach b. a dimensional approach c. a multidimensional approach d. a prototypical approach 108. Which classification approach does the DSM-5-TR most often take? a. a categorical approach b. a dimensional approach c. a multidimensional approach d. a prototypical approach 109. Polythetic is another term for which approach in classification systems? a. the prototypical approach b. the dimensional approach c. the multidimensional approach d. the categorical approach 110. If two people are both diagnosed with the same disorder using the DSM-5-TR, how will the two people be similar? a. They will have experienced identical symptoms of the disorder. b. They will have experienced similar distress because of the disorder. c. They will have lost the ability to function in a similar way. d. They will have some of the same symptoms as each other. 111. Accurate diagnoses are partly dependent on the reliability and validity of the diagnostic system being used (e.g., the DSM-5-TR). What else does diagnostic accuracy depend on? a. the patient’s ability to describe their symptoms clearly and honestly b. the skills and training of the clinician c. valid statistics regarding the prevalence of the disorder d. the efficacy of treatments available for a given psychological disorder 112. Using a new diagnostic system, several clinicians interview a patient and independently provide the same diagnosis. What can we assume about the new diagnostic system? a. It appears to be standardized. b. It appears to be reliable. c. It appears to be normed. d. It appears to be valid. 113. Which category in the DSM-5-TR is the most unreliable? a. personality disorders b. anxiety disorders c. neurodevelopmental disorders d. mood disorders Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis 114. Suppose a clinician creates criteria for a diagnosis that reflects what most experts in the field consider to be a particular prototypical patient. What is the clinician doing? a. creating content validity b. creating predictive validity c. creating criteria validity d. creating consensus validity 115. If an assessment is shown to measure what it is intended to measure, it can be said to be which of the following? a. reliable b. sensitive c. standardized d. valid 116. What important change was made in the DSM versions that followed DSM-III? a. a change from a dimensional to a categorical system b. the inclusion of the humanistic view of pathology c. greater emphasis on validity and less concern for reliability d. the distinction between organically based disorders and psychologically based disorders was eliminated 117. How did the DSM-III and DSM-IV facilitate a more complete picture of the individual? a. by emphasizing biological factors b. by emphasizing cultural factors c. by emphasizing levels of stress in the environment d. by emphasizing a dimensional approach 118. Allowing a disorder to be described from the perspective of the patient’s personal experience and in terms of their primary social and cultural group is referred to as which of the following? a. multiaxial approach b. cultural formulation c. cultural reference d. dimensional approach 119. What type of disorder is the condition in the Inuit culture known as kayak-angst? a. bipolar disorder b. personality disorder c. depressive disorder d. anxiety disorder 120. What is often the outcome of the fuzzy categories that blur in the classification systems? a. a comorbidity diagnosis b. one disorder is missed c. validity is compromised d. an inability to treat an individual 121. Your 70-year-old father is recounting a childhood story when he describes affectionately the boy down the street as Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis an imbecile. You respond to your father by saying, “In classifying mental disorders, we don’t use labels such as moron, imbecile, or idiot anymore.” When he asks you why, how do you respond? a. People will refuse treatment for mental disorders that have a negative connotation. b. There were no effective treatments for these disorders in the past. c. Mental health professionals are reluctant to assign a diagnosis that upsets people. d. Labels can take on a negative connotation and be used as insults. 122. Why was a mixed anxiety-depression diagnosis originally considered for DSM inclusion? a. The disorder was theoretically sound. b. The symptoms were often seen in primary care settings. c. The disorder was scientifically based. d. The disorder had construct validity. 123. You are attending a mental health lecture at your school when a heated debate erupts over the inclusion of premenstrual dysphoric disorder in the DSM. Why does this controversy exist? a. because of issues related to religion b. because of issues related to pregnancy and birth c. because of issues related to stigmatization d. because of issues related to racism 124. Which statement best describes a difficulty with diagnosing premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)? a. Di Guilio and Reissing (2006) found little evidence that PMDD is a distinct diagnostic entity. b. Symptoms occur only during the late luteal phase and thus it does not qualify as a genuine endocrine disorder. c. It is difficult to distinguish PMDD from premenstrual exacerbations of other disorders, such as binge eating disorder or mood disorders. d. It has less severe symptomatology than premenstrual syndrome and thus does not warrant a DSM-5-TR diagnostic label.
125. Describe the major objectives and procedures of clinical assessment. Be sure to include the typical activities of the assessor and the intended outcomes of the process. 126. Describe the concepts of reliability and validity. Why are the reliability and the validity of an assessment procedure important? 127. Describe the major objectives and typical procedures of the mental status exam. Be sure to include the typical activities of the examiner and the intended outcomes of the process. 128. Discuss the concept of confidentiality and the limits of confidentiality with regard to clinical assessment. Be sure to include the situation that would cause a clinician to break confidentiality. 129. Discuss fully how behavioural assessment takes the clinical interview one step further. What kinds of clinical populations and clinical problems might be especially well suited for behavioural assessment? Explain how target behaviours are identified and observed, using an illustrative example. 130. Identify and describe the ABCs of observational assessment. Using illustrative examples, explain how informal observation, differs from formal observation and the strengths and weaknesses of each. Powered by Cognero
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Chapter 03: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis 131. Projective tests such as the Thematic Apperception Test and the original Rorschach inkblot test are often criticized regarding their reliability. Explain why the reliability of these tests may not be as good as a personality measure such as the MMPI. 132. A psychiatrist orders a series of tests including an IQ test, personality inventory (MMPI), neuropsychological test (Halstead-Reitan), and a brain scan (CT scan) for a 10-year-old boy who has recently been acting aggressively. Explain what each test measures and how the psychiatrist would use the results of each test to help diagnose or rule out potential causes of the boy’s behaviour. 133. Explain the difference between neuropsychological testing and neuroimaging. Describe the procedures involved in computerized axial tomography (CAT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), positron emission tomography (PET), and functional MRI (fMRI), and explain what each procedure allows us to examine. 134. Describe the differing methods of classification and which approach the current DSM-5-TR uses. 135. Describe the influence of culture on the experience of psychopathology. Why is it important for the clinician to acknowledge and appreciate the patient’s culture before determining a diagnosis? 136. Explain the advantages and disadvantages (to the patient) of a diagnostic label. 137. Identify some of the changes that have occurred in the DSM throughout the years. Explain some of the current controversies with the DSM-5-TR.
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