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Test Bank for Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team 7th Editio

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Chapter 01: Scope of Microbiology and Infection Control Miller: Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Who is reported to have first observed microbes? a. Pasteur b. Oliver Wendell Holmes c. Lister d. Leeuwenhoek ANS: D

Pasteur, Oliver Wendell Holmes, and Lister made other important contributions to microbiology. Leeuwenhoek first observed microbes and called them “animalcules.” PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 2

2. What year were microbes first observed? a. 1667 b. 1880 c. 1956 d. 1975 ANS: A

Leeuwenhoek first observed microbes and called them “animalcules” in 1667, 1880, 1956, and 1975 are all too recent. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 2

3. Choose the microbial killing method referred to as pasteurization. a. 121C for 20 minutes b. 212F for 5 minutes c. 63C for 30 minutes d. 37C for 10 minutes ANS: C

121C for 20 minutes achieves sterilization. 212F for 5 minutes is the temperature of boiling water. 63C for 30 minutes achieves pasteurization which kills harmful microbes in liquids such as milk. 37C for 10 minutes is body temperature. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 2 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 4. When was the “Golden Age of Microbiology”? a. Mid to late 1600s b. Mid to late 1700s c. Mid to late 1800s


d. Mid to late 1900s ANS: C

Mid to late 1600s and mid to late 1700s were too early. Mid to late 1800s was the time when many new discoveries in microbiology were made. Mid to late 1900s was too late. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 2

5. What microbes are used to make vinegar, vitamins, drain cleaners, enzymes, and other

products? a. Fungi b. Viruses c. Protozoa d. Bacteria ANS: D

Fungi can make antibiotics but not these products. Viruses grow inside living cells and do not make such products. Protozoa are not very efficient in making such products. Bacteria make these and other products when they are grown in large vats. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 3

6. Which microbes are used to make pickles out of cucumbers? a. Bacteria or fungi b. Fungi or viruses c. Viruses or yeasts d. Bacteria of viruses ANS: A

Bacteria or fungi make certain extracellular products that change cucumbers into pickles. Viruses do not produce products that affect cucumbers. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 3

7. What microbe is used to make bread dough rise? a. Bacteria b. Yeasts c. Viruses d. Protozoa ANS: B

Bacteria do not produce enough carbon dioxide (CO2) to make the dough rise. Yeasts metabolize carbohydrates to produce the gas bubbles of CO2 which causes the dough to rise. Viruses only grow inside of living cells and do not have a regular metabolism. Protozoa do not produce enough carbon dioxide (CO2) to make the dough rise. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 3


COMPLETION 1. Louie Pasteur and John Tyndall first recognized the use of ___________ to destroy

bacteria and resistant spores. ANS:

heat Other physical procedures were found not to be as efficient as heat for killing microbes. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 2. In 1915 it was discovered that bacteria can be infected with viruses called

________________. ANS:

bacteriophages Animal viruses had been previously discovered, so they gave bacterial viruses a different name – bacteriophages – phage means “to eat.” PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

3. Microbiology is the study of bacteria, molds, yeasts, protozoa, certain algae, viruses and

_________. ANS:

archaea Archaea are single cell microbes morphologically similar to bacteria, but their genes and metabolic pathways are more closely related to eukaryotes. While they may be present in the human body, there have been no clear examples of archaeal human pathogens. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 2

TRUE/FALSE 1. The disease of smallpox was involved in the discovery of immunizations in the 1790s by

Edward Jenner. ANS: T

Edward Jenner is credited with recognizing the concept of immunization when he realized in the 1790s that milkmaids who caught cowpox, a mild disease, were protected from the more serious disease of smallpox. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 2 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission


Chapter 02: Characteristics of Microorganisms Miller: Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Under what conditions do regular bacteria, excluding Rickettsia and Chlamydia, multiply? a. In the absence of nutrients b. Only when they are inside of living cells c. When they are outside of living cells d. Only when the temperature is below 7C ANS: C

Nothing can grow in the absence of nutrients. Rickettsia and Chlamydia are the only bacteria that can grow inside living cells. Regular bacteria do not need to be inside living cells to grow. They can obtain their nutrients from the environment. Only the special bacteria called psychrophiles can grow at these low temperatures. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 12 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

2. Select an environment in which viruses can multiply. a. Only in the absence of nutrients b. Only when they are inside of living cells c. Only when they are outside of living cells d. Only when the temperature is below 7C ANS: B

Nothing can grow in the absence of nutrients. Viruses need the nutrients and metabolic machinery of living cells to multiply. Viruses cannot obtain their nutrients from the environment. Only the special bacteria called psychrophiles can grow at these low temperatures. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 14 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 3. Which of the following microbes is a yeast? a. Streptococcus mutans b. Trichomonas vaginalis c. Candida albicans d. Staphylococcus aureus ANS: C

Streptococcus mutans is a bacterium. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan. Candida albicans can exist as a yeast which is a special fungus. Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterium. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 3


4. Which of the following microbes is a type of fungus? a. Influenzae b. Candida albicans c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Streptococcus mutans ANS: B

Influenzae is a virus. Candida albicans can exist as a yeast or filamentous fungus. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan. Streptococcus mutans is a bacterium. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 3

5. A yeast is what type of microorganism? a. Bacterium b. Fungus c. Virus d. Protozoan ANS: B

Bacteria cannot form yeast. A yeast is a special type of fungus. Viruses and protozoa cannot form yeasts. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 3

6. Thrush is caused by a. Candida albicans. b. Streptococcus mutans. c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. human herpesvirus 1. ANS: A

Candida albicans causes thrush (e.g., oral candidiasis or denture stomatitis) and is a fungus that may exist as a yeast cell or as a filamentous fungus (mold). Streptococcus mutans, Staphylococcus aureus, and human herpesvirus 1 do not cause thrush. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 3

7. Bacilli are shaped like a. spheres. b. cylinders or rods. c. curved or spiral forms. d. flat disks. ANS: B

Spheres are not bacilli. Bacilli are bacterial cells shaped like a rod or cylinder. Spirilla are curved or spiral forms. There are no microbes shaped like a flat disk. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 7

OBJ: 1


TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply 8. Cocci are shaped like ____________. a. spheres b. cylinders or rods c. curved or spiral forms d. flat disks ANS: A

Spherical cells are called cocci. Rod-shaped cells are called bacilli. Curved or spiral cells are called spirilla. This is not a shape associated with bacteria. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 7 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

9. Choose the bacterial structure that controls the flow of nutrients and waste into and out of

the cell? a. Cell wall b. Flagellum c. Cytoplasmic membrane d. Capsule ANS: C

The cell wall protects the cell from being crushed. The flagellum provides locomotion. The cytoplasmic membrane has a function to regulate the entrance and exit of nutrient materials and waste products. The capsule keeps the cell from drying out and is antiphagocytic. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall TOP: CDA, Does not apply

REF: p. 8

OBJ: 1

10. Which of the following bacterial structures interferes with phagocytosis? a. Cell wall b. Flagellum c. Cytoplasmic membrane d. Capsule ANS: D

The cell wall protects the cell from being crushed. The flagellum provides locomotion. One of the functions of the cytoplasmic membrane is to regulate the entrance and exit of nutrient materials and waste products. The capsule’s “slimy” nature interferes with phagocytosis. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

11. Which of the following bacterial structures helps the cell to attach to surfaces? a. Cell wall b. Capsule c. Cytoplasmic membrane d. Fimbriae


ANS: D

The cell wall protects the cell from being crushed. The capsule keeps the cell from drying out and is antiphagocytic. One of the functions of the cytoplasmic membrane is to regulate the entrance and exit of nutrient materials and waste products. Fimbriae serve as mechanisms by which cells can attach to other cells or other environmental surfaces. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

12. The main function of the bacterial cell wall is to a. protect against drying. b. protect against crushing. c. to control the exit of wastes from the cell. d. provide the cell with locomotion. ANS: B

Protect against drying is a function of the capsule. The basic components of the cell wall (peptidoglycan) protect the cell from being crushed. Controlling the flow of nutrients and waste is a function of the cytoplasmic membrane. Providing the cell with locomotion is a function of the flagellum. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 8 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

13. The main function of bacterial fimbriae is to a. control the exit of wastes from the cell. b. protect against crushing. c. allow the cell to attach to surfaces. d. protect against drying. ANS: C

Controlling the exit of wastes from the cell is a function of the cytoplasmic membrane. Protection against crushing is a function of the cell wall. Fimbriae serve as mechanisms by which cells can attach to other cells or other environmental surfaces. Protection against drying is a function of the capsule. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

14. Choose an environment in which psychrophilic bacteria grow best. a. In the human body b. In hot water heaters c. Anywhere the temperature is 37C d. In the refrigerator ANS: D

The human body, hot water, and 37C are all too warm for the growth of psychrophiles. The refrigerator at 7C provides the optimal grow temperature for psychrophiles. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: CDA, Does not apply

REF: p. 10

OBJ: 1


15. Which of the following groups of bacteria grow best inside your refrigerator? a. Psychrophiles b. Thermophils c. Mesophils d. Acidophils ANS: A

Psychrophiles are “cold-loving” and optimal growth is refrigerator temperature. Thermophils love high temperatures. Mesophils love medium (e.g., body) temperatures. Acidophils produce acids and are unrelated to temperature. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall TOP: CDA, Does not apply

REF: p. 10

OBJ: 1

16. How would prevent the growth of an obligate anaerobe? a. Adjust the pH of the environment to 7.0. b. Remove protein of the environment. c. Maintain the environmental temperature to 37C. d. Add oxygen to the environment. ANS: D

A pH of 7.0 will support the growth of most bacteria. Removing protein will not always prevent growth. Keeping the temperature at 37C will allow many bacteria to grow. Adding oxygen to the environment will prevent growth since they require low or no oxygen for growth. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

17. Those bacteria that die in the presence of oxygen are called a. aerobes. b. mesophils. c. acidogens. d. anaerobes. ANS: D

Aerobes need oxygen for growth. Mesophils grow at medium temperatures and most are aerobes. Acidogens produce acids during growth and some are aerobes and some anaerobes. Anaerobes cannot tolerate oxygen. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

18. Acidogenic bacteria are noted for producing large amounts of a. acids. b. vitamins. c. proteins. d. carbohydrates. ANS: A


Acidogenic bacteria produce large amounts of acid. Vitamins may also be produced but do not relate to being acidogenic. Proteins and carbohydrates are also produced but do not relate to being acidogenic. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

19. What temperatures are the surest way to kill bacteria (or any other type of

microorganisms) in the shortest amount of time? a. Sterilizing temperatures b. Freezing temperatures c. Fluctuating temperatures d. Refrigerator temperatures ANS: A

Sterilizing temperatures such as those achieved in a steam, dry heat, or unsaturated chemical vapor sterilizer is the surest way to kill bacteria (or any other type of microorganisms) in the shortest amount of time. Freezing will not kill all microbes. Fluctuating temperatures cannot be relied upon to kill all microbes. Refrigeration will not kill all microbes. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 14 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 20. Anaerobes are bacteria that a. require oxygen for growth. b. grow only in the absence of oxygen. c. can multiply in the presence or absence of oxygen. d. are killed in the presence or absence of oxygen. ANS: B

Aerobes require oxygen for growth. Anaerobes cannot tolerate oxygen and only grow in its absence. Facultative anaerobes grow in the presence or absence of oxygen. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

21. Agar is a polysaccharide from seaweed that is used to a. kill bacteria. b. grow viruses. c. kill viruses. d. culture bacteria. ANS: D

Agar is not lethal to bacteria or viruses. Viruses require living cells to grow. Agar can provide a semisolid surface on which bacteria can grow if adequate nutrients are available. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

22. What environmental condition will promote the growth of an aciduric bacterium? a. Low oxygen level


b. Low nutrient level c. Low pH d. Low temperature ANS: C

Low oxygen will promote growth of anaerobes. Low nutrients restrict rather than promote bacterial growth. Low pH (usually below pH 5.5) promotes growth of aciduric bacteria. Low temperature promotes the growth of psychrophiles. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

23. Which type of microbe is the most difficult to kill? a. Endospores b. Vegetative bacteria c. Viruses d. Chlamydiae ANS: A

An endospore is one most resistant forms of life against heat, drying and chemicals due to its thickened cell wall, dense cytoplasm and dormant state. Vegetative bacteria can be killed by exposing it to high heat or with chemicals. Viruses can be killed when outside the body by exposure to high heat or chemicals. Chlamydiae are a type of bacterium and can be killed by exposure to high heat or with chemicals. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 24. Select the best description of a bacterial endospore a. a fungus resistant to chemicals. b. one of the most resistant forms of life to heat and chemicals. c. a virus that infects the root canal. d. a bacterium that grows at low temperatures. ANS: B

A fungus is not a bacterium. An endospore is one of the most resistant forms of life against heat, drying and chemicals due to its thickened cell wall, dense cytoplasm and dormant state. A virus is not a bacterium. A bacterium that grows at low temperatures is called a psychrophile not an endospore. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 25. Some bacteria can change into special forms that are dormant and are highly resistant to

heat, chemicals, and drying? These are called a. Rickettsia. b. endospores. c. mold. d. vegetative cells. ANS: B


Rickettsia are not resistant to heat. An endospore is one most resistant forms of life against heat, drying, and chemicals due to its thickened cell wall, dense cytoplasm, and dormant state. Molds are not bacteria they are fungi. Vegetative cells and bacteria that can grow (multiply) and are not dormant. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 26. Chlamydia and Rickettsia are examples of a. viruses. b. fungi. c. bacteria. d. protozoa. ANS: C

Viruses and fungi are not bacteria. Chlamydia and Rickettsia are special bacteria called obligate intracellular parasites which multiply only inside living cells. Protozoa are not bacteria. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 12 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

27. Which of the following microbes cannot be killed with antibiotics? a. Streptococcus mutans b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Human herpes virus type 1 d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis ANS: C

Streptococcus mutans and Streptococcus aureus can be killed with certain antibiotics. Human herpes virus type 1 and other viruses are not killed by antibiotics. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be killed with certain antibiotics. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

28. Before a virus multiplies inside of our body cells, what must it do? a. Uncoat (shed its capsid) b. Assemble the capsid and nucleic acid to make a whole virus c. Adsorb (attach) to the host cell d. Kill the host cell ANS: C

Uncoating is the third step in the virus life cycle. Assembling is the fifth step in the virus life cycle. Adsorbing (attaching) to the host cell is the first step in the virus life cycle. Host cell death happens at the end of the life cycle of most viruses. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply 29. Which of the following diseases is a bacterial disease? a. Influenza

OBJ: 2


b. Hepatitis B c. Mumps d. Dental caries ANS: D

Influenza, Hepatitis B, and humps are all viral diseases. Dental caries are caused by bacteria. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 11 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 30. What is the result of a virus invading a host cell? a. There is no effect on the cell. b. The virus always dies. c. The host cell always dies. d. The host cell may die or be changed. ANS: D

If a virus invades a cell there is always some effect. The virus may survive and kill or damage the cell. Sometimes the host cell survives with minor damage or permanent changes. Depending upon the virus, the cell may be killed or it may survive with minor damage. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 31. Viruses cause diseases in humans because they a. produce exotoxins. b. produce endotoxins. c. invade and kill or damage cells in our body. d. “swim” away from phagocytes using their flagella. ANS: C

Exotoxins are involved in some bacterial or fungal diseases. Endotoxins are involved in some bacterial diseases. Viruses cause disease by entering and multiplying in our body cells and killing or changing them. Viruses do not have flagella. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 15 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 32. During the life cycle of a virus, what is the next step after the virus attaches to the host

cell? a. Uncoating b. Release c. Replication d. Enters the cell ANS: D


Uncoating is the third step in the life cycle of a virus. Release is the sixth and final step in the life cycle of a virus. Replication is the fourth step in the life cycle of a virus. In the second step of the life cycle of a virus (penetration), the virus enters the host cell. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 15 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 2

33. The genes of a virus are in the a. capsid. b. nucleic acid core. c. envelope. d. capsid and envelope. ANS: B

The capsid is the protein coating of virus that protects the nucleic acid core and determines the shape of the virus. The nucleic acid core contains the DNA or RNA genes of a virus. The envelope is the outer lipid-rich layer found in some viruses that is derived from the host cell membrane on release of the virus from the host cell. The capsid and envelope is referring to the outer protein coating (capsid) and the outer lipid-rich layer found in some viruses (envelope). PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 14 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 2

34. What is the final product from the bacterial fermentation of sugar (e.g., glucose)? a. Nucleic acid b. Lactic acid c. Hydrochloric acid d. Pyruvic acid ANS: B

Nucleic acid is DNA or RNA neither of which are direct products of fermentation. Lactic acid is the final product. Hydrochloric acid is stomach acid. Pyruvic acid is the second to the last fermentation product. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 13 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

35. Which of the following substances is a component of some bacterial outer membranes and

when released in the human body contributes to the causes of periodontal disease? a. Lysozyme b. Mesosome c. Capsid d. Endotoxin ANS: D

Lysozyme is an enzyme in saliva produced by the human body. Mesosomes are part of the bacterial structure but are not directly involved in periodontal diseases. The capsid is the protein coat of viruses. The action of endotoxin is thought to play a role in many infectious diseases, including periodontal diseases. PTS: 1

DIF: Application

REF: p. 9

OBJ: 1


TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply 36. Agents that prevent bacterial growth without killing them are referred to as a. bacteriostatic agents. b. sterilant agents. c. disinfectant agents. d. nucleic acid agents. ANS: A

Bacteriostatic agents prevent or slow down bacterial growth which resumes when, and if, the agents are removed or degraded. Sterilant and disinfectant agents kill bacteria. Nucleic acid agents do not directly affect the growth of bacteria. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 13 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, II.A. Prevent cross-contamination during procedures 37. Colony-forming-units (CFU) are defined as a. measurements of the diameter of colonies that develop on an agar medium. b. individual bacterial cells or a small group of cells each of which can form a colony

on agar media. c. units used to estimate the distance a bacterial cell can move away from its colony on agar media. d. highly resistant forms of certain bacteria. ANS: B

Colony diameter is measured in millimeters. One or a small number of bacterial cells deposited on an appropriate agar medium will develop into a single colony (clone) of cells and be referred to as a colony-forming unit. The distance a bacterial cell can move away from its colony on agar media is seldom measured but is expressed in millimeters. Highly resistant forms of bacteria are referred to as endospores. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 12 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, II.A. Prevent cross-contamination during procedures 38. How are bacterial spores important in dental infection control? a. They cause periodontal disease. b. They are used to monitor surface disinfection. c. They are used to test the functioning and use of sterilizers. d. They cause thrush. ANS: C

Periodontal diseases are caused by nonspore-forming bacteria. There is not an easy test for surface disinfection. Since bacterial spores are highly resistant to heat, they are used to monitor heat sterilization in steam, dry heat and other sterilizers. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.B. Instrument/device processing 39. Which of the following bacteria are important in metabolizing sugar to acids that cause

dental caries? a. Geobacillus stearothermophilus b. Bacillus atrophaeus


c. Clostridium sporogenes d. Streptococcus mutans ANS: D

Geobacillus stearothermophilus is a spore-former use to monitor steam sterilizers. Bacillus atrophaeus is a spore-former use to monitor dry heat sterilizers. Clostridium sporogenes is a spore-former that is used to test the effectiveness of liquid sterilants. Streptococcus mutans forms plaque and metabolizes dietary sugar to acids causing demineralization of tooth enamel. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 13 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

40. Which of the following represents the pH values of acid? a. 0 to 7 b. 7 to 14 c. 8 to 10 d. 10 to 12 ANS: A

Acids have a pH from 0 to 7, 7 to 14, 8 to 10, and 10 to 12 are all alkaline. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

41. mRNA is formed from DNA through a process called a. transformation. b. transcription. c. transmission. d. transduction. ANS: B

Transformation is where a bacterial cell takes up extracellular DNA released from other bacteria. Transmission is a general term for spread. Transduction is where viruses transfer genes from one bacterial cell to another. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 13 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 42. The function of mRNA is to associate with ribosomes and a. link amino acids to from proteins. b. transfer genes through the sex pilus to another bacterial cell. c. exit the cell for uptake up by other cells. d. bind to a virus that exits the cell, infects other cell transmitting the nucleic acid to

the new cell. ANS: A

DNA is transferred through the sex pilus. DNA can exit the cell for uptake by other cells. DNA binds to viruses for transfer to other cells. PTS: 1

DIF: Application

REF: p. 13

OBJ: 1


TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 43. What emerging fungus has caused bloodstream, wound, oral and ear infections? a. Bacillus subtilis b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Candida auris ANS: D

Bacillus subtilis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are bacteria. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission COMPLETION 1. For growth all bacteria need the proper nutrients, temperature, pH, atmosphere and

_________. ANS:

water Water is essential for all life forms. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 11 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1

TRUE/FALSE 1. Bacteria are larger than viruses. ANS: T

Bacteria average about 1.0 m in diameter, and human viruses are smaller than bacteria, ranging from 0.02 to 0.3 m. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 14 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 2

2. Bacterial growth is defined as an increase in cell numbers. ANS: T

When bacteria grow they double their numbers with each generation. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 10 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply 3. Human virus are smaller than bacteria. ANS: T

OBJ: 1


Bacteria average 1.0 m in diameter. Human viruses are smaller than bacteria, ranging from 0.02 to 0.3. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 14 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 2

4. If bacteria grow in a broth culture, the broth remains clear. ANS: F

If bacteria grow in broth culture, the broth becomes turbid (cloudy). PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 12 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.B. Instrument/device processing 5. Unlike bacterial diseases, most viral diseases cannot be successfully treated. ANS: T

Because viruses use the metabolic machinery of the host cell to replicate, chemicals such as antibiotics used against bacteria may damage the host cells and cannot be used to treat viral diseases. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission


Chapter 03: Development of Infectious Diseases Miller: Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Microbes that are usually harmless but can cause disease under certain conditions are

called a. opportunistic pathogens. b. toxigenic pathogens. c. endogenous pathogens. d. exogenous pathogens. ANS: A

Opportunistic pathogens cause diseases only when given a special opportunity to enter deeper tissues of the body or to accumulate to levels that can harm the body. Toxigenic pathogens are caused by toxins released by a bacterium or fungus. Endogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that already exist within the body. Exogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that enter the body from the outside. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 4

2. Microbes that cause disease by producing a toxin are called a. opportunistic pathogens. b. toxigenic pathogens. c. endogenous pathogens. d. exogenous pathogens. ANS: B

Opportunistic pathogens cause diseases only when given a special opportunity to enter deeper tissues of the body or to accumulate to levels that can harm the body. Toxigenic pathogens are caused by toxins released by a bacterium or fungus. Endogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that already exist within the body. Exogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that enter the body from the outside. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 3

3. Members of the normal body microbiota that can cause disease are called a. obligate intracellular parasite. b. toxigenic pathogens. c. endogenous pathogens. d. exogenous pathogens. ANS: C

Obligate intracellular parasites (e.g., all viruses and some special bacteria) cause diseases by invading body cells. Toxigenic pathogens are caused by toxins released by a bacterium or fungus. Endogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that already exist within the body. Exogenous pathogens are caused by microbes that enter the body from the outside.


PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 3

4. The difference between an infection and an infectious disease is that an a. infection never causes an infectious disease. b. infection comes after the infectious disease has already started. c. infectious disease is an infection that causes damage to the body. d. infectious disease and an infection can never involve the same microbe. ANS: C

Some infections can lead to disease. Infection comes before the infectious disease starts. An infection does not always indicate disease, but disease (damage to the body) seldom results without infection (the exception is toxigenic diseases). Infectious disease and an infection can involve the same microbe. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 19 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 5. That period of an infectious disease between the initial infection and the time when the

first symptoms occur is called the a. convalescent stage. b. acute stage. c. prodromal stage. d. incubation stage. ANS: D

Convalescent stage is the recovery phase. Acute stage is when the symptoms are at or near maximum levels. Prodromal stage is the early symptoms stage. Incubation stage is the time between infection and appearance of signs/symptoms. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 18 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 6. That period of an infectious disease when the symptoms are at or near the maximum level

is called the a. convalescent stage. b. acute stage. c. prodromal stage. d. incubation stage. ANS: B

Convalescent stage is the recovery phase. Acute stage is when the symptoms are at or near maximum levels. Prodromal stage is the early symptoms stage. Incubation stage is the time between infection and appearance of signs/symptoms. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 18 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission


7. That period of an infectious disease when the symptoms are declining is called the a. convalescent stage. b. acute stage. c. prodromal stage. d. incubation stage. ANS: A

Convalescent stage is the recovery phase in which symptoms are waning. Acute stage is when the symptoms are at or near maximum levels. Prodromal stage is the early symptoms stage. Incubation stage is the time between infection and appearance of signs/symptoms. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 18 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 8. An asymptomatic carrier can be in which of the following stages of an infectious disease? a. Convalescent stage b. Acute stage c. Prodromal stage d. Incubation stage ANS: D

Convalescent stage is the recovery phase in which symptoms are waning. Acute stage is when the symptoms are at or near maximum levels. Prodromal stage is the early symptoms stage. Incubation stage is the time between infection and appearance of signs/symptoms. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 18 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 9. The mode of microbe transmission that involves touching the patient’s teeth while not

wearing gloves is called a. direct contact. b. indirect contact. c. droplet infection. d. airborne infection. ANS: A

Direct contact is person-to-person body contact. Indirect contact is contact with an item (e.g., an instrument) that was contaminated with another patient’s microbes. Droplet infection involves contact with larger droplets in sprays or spatter containing microbes. Airborne infection involves contact with the smaller droplet nuclei (e.g., dental aerosols) in sprays or spatter. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 19 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.D. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission | CDA, Infection Control, II.A. Prevent cross-contamination during procedures 10. The mode of microbe transmission that involves a needlestick is called a. direct contact. b. indirect contact.


c. droplet infection. d. airborne infection. ANS: B

Direct contact is person-to-person body contact. Indirect contact is contact with an item (e.g., an instrument needle) that was contaminated with another patient’s microbes. Droplet infection involves contact with larger droplets in sprays or spatter containing microbes. Airborne infection involves contact with the smaller droplet nuclei (e.g., dental aerosols) in sprays or spatter. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 19 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 11. The mode of microbe transmission that involves small droplet nuclei such as those

generated from dental aerosols is called a. direct contact. b. indirect contact. c. droplet infection. d. airborne infection. ANS: D

Direct contact is person-to-person body contact. Indirect contact is contact with an item (e.g., an instrument) that was contaminated with another patient’s microbes. Droplet infection involves contact with larger droplets in sprays or spatter containing microbes. Airborne infection involves contact with the smaller droplet nuclei (e.g., dental aerosols) in sprays or spatter. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 19 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.E. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 12. Which of the following best describes antibodies? a. Chemicals produced by bacteria or fungi that can kill other microorganisms. b. Proteins that are released from bacteria to degrade large substances to smaller

chemicals that can be taken into the cell and used for growth. c. Special proteins produced in our body in the presence of antigens that aid in

destroying those antigens or help in their removal from the body. d. A part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria that enhances inflammation when

released from the bacterial cell. ANS: C

Chemicals produced by bacteria or fungi that can kill other microorganisms are referred to as antibiotics. Extracellular enzymes are proteins that are released from bacteria to degrade large substances to smaller chemicals that can be taken into the cell and used for growth. Antibodies are special proteins produced in our body in response to the presence of antigens, and they aid in destroying those antigens or help in their removal from the body. An endotoxin is part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria that enhances inflammation when released from the bacterial cell. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 23 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission


13. Which of the following best describes extracellular enzymes? a. Chemicals produced by bacteria or fungi that can kill other microorganisms. b. Proteins that are released from bacteria to degrade large substances to smaller

chemicals that can be taken into the cell and used for growth. c. Special proteins produced in our body in the presence of antigens that aid in

destroying those antigens or help in their removal from the body. d. A part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria that enhances inflammation when

released from the bacterial cell. ANS: B

Chemicals produced by bacteria or fungi that can kill other microorganisms are referred to as antibiotics. Extracellular enzymes are proteins that are released from bacteria to degrade large substances to smaller chemicals that can be taken into the cell and used for growth. If these macromolecules are parts of host cell surfaces or are tissue components, this process can kill cells or damage the tissue. Antibodies are special proteins produced in our body in response to the presence of antigens, and they aid in destroying those antigens or help in their removal from the body. An endotoxin is part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria that enhances inflammation when released from the bacterial cell. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 21 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 3

14. The major source of disease agents in the dental office is a. dental unit water. b. the mouth of the patient. c. air. d. dust. ANS: B

Dental unit water contains microbes but not as many potential pathogens as patients’ mouths. Microbes in patient’s mouths include those that may be present in saliva, respiratory secretions, and blood that may enter the mouth during dental care. Air and dust contain microbes but not as many potential pathogens as patient’s mouths. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, II.A. Prevent cross-contamination during procedures 15. Special proteins that are made by the body after a microbe invades the body are called a. antigens. b. acids. c. antiseptics. d. antibodies. ANS: D

Antigens are cells, microbes or substances that invade the body and activate the immune response. Acids are not proteins. Antiseptics are germicides applied to the body. Antibodies are proteins produced by the body after an antigen (e.g., a microbe) invades the body. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 23 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease


transmission 16. The next to the last step in the development of an infectious disease is a. damage to the body. b. escape from the source. c. infection. d. spread to a new person. e. entry into a new person. ANS: C

Damage to the body is the sixth and final step of infectious disease. Escape from the source is the second step. Infection is the next to last step (the sixth step) in the development of an infectious disease. Spread to a new person is the third step, and entry into a new person is the fourth step. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 19 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 17. Host defense mechanisms that we are born with and are always active are referred to as

_________ defenses. a. acquired b. long-term c. artificial d. innate ANS: D

Acquired defenses are acquired after birth. Long-term defenses are long-lasting immunities. Artificial defenses are acquired after being immunized with a vaccine. Innate immunity is a naturally occurring body defense mechanism against infectious disease agents. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 22 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 18. Hay fever and asthma and are examples of a. bacterial diseases. b. allergic reactions. c. contact dermatitis. d. anaphylactic shock. ANS: B

Bacterial diseases are not allergic reactions. Hay fever and asthma are antibody mediated allergic reactions. Contact dermatitis and anaphylactic shock are other types of allergic reactions. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 24 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 19. Which of the following is an antimicrobial chemical barrier to infectious diseases? a. Ciliary escalator


b. Hair in the nose c. Lysozyme d. Coughing ANS: C

Ciliary escalators, nose hairs, and coughing are mechanical barriers. The enzyme lysozyme can lyse and kill some bacteria and is present in saliva, tears, nasal secretions, intestinal secretions, colostrum, and inside phagocytes. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 22 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 4

20. Which of the following is a physical barrier to infectious diseases? a. Mucous membranes b. Acid in the stomach c. Complement fragments d. Interferon ANS: A

The mucous membranes of the eyes, mouth, nose, respiratory tract, vagina, and intestinal tract serves as physical barriers and inhibit or retard penetration by microbes. Stomach acid, complement fragments, and interferon are chemical barriers. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 22 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 4

21. What type of body cells makes antibodies? a. Brain cells b. Red blood cells c. Plasma cells d. Phagocytes ANS: C

Lymphocytes are the body cells that produce antibodies. Brain cells, red blood cells and phagocytes are important cells of the body, but they do not make antibodies. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 22 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 22. What type of cells engulf (“eat”) and destroy bacteria? a. Brain cells b. Red blood cells c. Lymphocytes d. Phagocytes ANS: D

Phagocytes first engulf (swallow up) microorganisms and then kill and digest them using enzymes that degrade the microbial structures. Brain cells, red blood cells and phagocytes are important cells of the body, but they do not engulf and destroy bacteria. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 22

OBJ: 4


TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply 23. Special proteins that are made by the body after a microbe invades the body and that can

destroy that microbe are called a. antibodies. b. antigens. c. barriers. d. enzymes. ANS: A

Antibodies are special proteins that are made by the body after an antigen (e.g., a microbe) invades the body and that can destroy that microbe. Antigens are substances or cells that the body identifies as foreign and mounts an immune response. Barriers are host defense systems against harmful infections. Enzymes are protein catalysts that control the rate of chemical reactions in cells. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 23 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 24. An allergic reaction is best defined as a. a disease caused by a microbe. b. damage to the body by the immune system. c. the multiplication of a microbe on or in the body. d. a disease cause by a microbe that invaded the body from the outside. ANS: B

A disease caused by a microbe is an infectious disease. An allergic reaction is a disorder in which the immune system reacts to an allergen, and this reaction results in damage to the body. The multiplication of a microbe on or in the body is an infection. A disease caused by a microbe that invaded the body from the outside is an exogenous disease. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 24 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 25. Which of the following patients appear the same? a. Normal patients and acute stage patients b. Normal patients and prodromal patients c. Asymptomatic patients and normal patients d. Asymptomatic patients and acute stage patients ANS: C

Acute stage and prodromal stage patients have symptoms that normal patients do not. Normal and asymptomatic patients appear the same with no recognizable symptoms. Acute stage patients have symptoms asymptomatic patients do not. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 18 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply 26. The prodromal stages of a disease is defined as the a. appearance of early symptoms. b. recovery phase of a disease.

OBJ: 1


c. period between infection and development of symptoms. d. time when the symptoms are maximal. ANS: A

At the appearance of early symptoms, the invading microbes have multiplied just enough to cause early symptoms. The convalescent phase of a disease is the recovery phase. The incubation stage of a disease is the period between infection and development of symptoms. The acute stage of a disease is the time when the symptoms are maxima. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 18 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 27. Aerosol particles generated from the use of a prophylaxis angle mainly enter the body

through a. breaks in the skin and ingestion. b. inhalation and mucous membranes. c. only breaks in the skin. d. mucous membranes and breaks in the skin. ANS: B

Aerosols are very small particles and remain airborne. Aerosol particles can be inhaled and contact the oral mucous membranes. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 19 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.E. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 28. Some strains of Streptococcus mutans are aciduric which allows them a. to survive within a carious lesion. b. attach to oral mucous membranes. c. resist phagocytosis. d. to be inhaled. ANS: A

Aciduric means to survive in an acid environment, and carious lesions are highly acidic. Surface structures on bacteria allow them to attach to other surfaces. Phagocytes can engulf aciduric bacteria. Being aciduric is unrelated to being inhaled. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 21 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 3

29. A very important disease-producing property of Mycobacterium tuberculosis that

interferes with a host defense mechanism is a. being aciduric. b. producing histolytic enzymes. c. containing endotoxin. d. resisting phagocytic digestion. ANS: D


Surviving in acids is not important in causing tuberculosis. Producing histolytic enzymes is not important in causing tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis does not contain endotoxin. Mycobacterium tuberculosis interferes with host defenses by resisting digestion by phagocytes. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 21 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 30. Anaphylactic shock is defined as a. a bacterial disease of the lungs and skin also called tuberculosis. b. a viral disease of the brain and spinal cord similar to bacterial meningitis. c. an allergy to a substance distributed throughout the body affecting the blood,

lungs, and heart. d. the production of large amounts of antibodies in response to a particular bacterial

disease. ANS: C

Tuberculosis, a bacterial disease of the lungs and skin, is not an allergic reaction. A viral disease of the brain and spinal cord similar to bacterial meningitis is not an allergic reaction. Anaphylaxis is an allergy to a substance that is distributed throughout the body (e.g., penicillin inoculation) may result in a widespread reaction affecting the blood system, lungs, and heart. The production of large amounts of antibodies in response to a particular bacterial disease is not an allergic reaction. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 24 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, IV.A. Occupational safety/administrative protocols 31. Which of the following best defines an antigen? a. A foreign substance, cell or microbe that invades the body and activates an

immune response. b. Special proteins produced by the body in response to an invading microbe. c. Cells of the body that engulf and destroy invading bacteria. d. Agents used to treat bacterial diseases. ANS: A

The immune response is activated by antigens (sometimes referred to as immunogens). Examples of antigens are bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, extracellular macromolecules produced by these microorganisms, and other macromolecules or cells that are normally not present in the body. Antibodies are special proteins produced by the body in response to an invading microbe. Phagocytes are cells of the body that engulf and destroy invading bacteria. Antibiotics are agents used to treat bacterial diseases. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 23 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 32. The immunity that develops from receiving the hepatitis B vaccination series is called a. innate immunity. b. allergic immunity. c. interferon immunity.


d. artificial immunity. ANS: D

Innate immunity is the immunity we are born with. Allergic immunity refers to allergies. Interferon is a substance that interferes with virus replication. Artificial immunity is called artificial because the immunity develops from receiving a vaccine rather than actually being infected. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 23 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 33. Spreading a microbe from one patient to another by reusing improperly sterilized

instruments is referred to as cross-contamination through a. direct contact. b. indirect contact. c. droplet infection. d. airborne infection. ANS: B

Direct contact is direct touching of contaminants. Indirect contact happens when an intermediate object is involved in transferring microbes from one site to another. Droplet infection involves large spatter droplets on contaminated materials. Airborne infection involves very small particles (aerosols) that become airborne and may be inhaled. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 19 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing 34. Choose the step in the chain of infection that immediately follows “mode of spread.” a. Reservoir b. Portal of exit c. Portal of entry d. Susceptible host ANS: C

Reservoir follows infectious agent. Portal of exit follows reservoir. Portal of entry follows mode of spread. Susceptible host follows portal of entry. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 19-20 OBJ: 1 | 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 35. Having a patient use an antimicrobial mouthrinse immediately before dental treatment is

an attempt to break the chain of infection at which link? a. Portal of exit b. Portal of entry c. Mode of spread d. Susceptible host ANS: A


Portal of exit is interfered with by reducing the number of microbes that can escape from the patient’s mouth. Portal of entry relates to microbes entering a new host. Mode of spread relates to the spread of microbes after the escape from the mouth. Susceptible host determines if the new host will actually acquire a new infection. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 21 OBJ: 1 | 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.E. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 36. Immunization against hepatitis B addresses which link in the chain of infection? a. Portal of exit b. Portal of entry c. Mode of spread d. Susceptible host ANS: D

Portal of exit is interfered with by reducing the number of microbes that can escape from the patient’s mouth. Portal of entry relates to microbes entering a new host. Mode of spread relates to the spread of microbes after the escape from the mouth. Immunization breaks the chain by making the new host not susceptible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 21 OBJ: 1 | 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 37. Sterilization of contaminated dental instruments before they are used on a subsequent

patient interferes with which link in the chain of infection? a. Portal of exit b. Portal of entry c. Mode of spread d. Susceptible host ANS: C

Portal of exit relates to the initial escape of microbes from the patient’s mouth on the used instruments. Portal of entry relates to microbes entering a new host if the instruments are not sterilized before reuse. Mode of spread is interfered with because the microbes on the used instruments have been killed. Susceptible host is related to the host and not infection control procedures. PTS: 1 OBJ: 1 | 2

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 19-20 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, III.A. Instrument/device processing

TRUE/FALSE 1. Our bodies are usually free of bacteria except when we get sick from an exogenous

disease. ANS: F

Our bodies are infected constantly with large numbers of bacteria multiplying and surviving in our mouths, nose, eyes, intestines, and skin on a normal basis.


PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, Does not apply

OBJ: 1


Chapter 04: Emerging Diseases Miller: Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. New infectious disease that have not been recognized before are referred to as a. emerging diseases. b. opportunistic diseases. c. endogenous diseases. d. exogenous diseases. ANS: A

An emerging disease is a new infectious disease that has not been recognized before. Opportunistic diseases are known diseases caused only under certain conditions, endogenous diseases are known diseases caused by microbes already in the body, and exogenous diseases are known diseases caused by microbes that enter the body from the outside. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 26 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 2. An example of a disease that emerged through international commerce and travel is a. hantavirus pulmonary syndrome. b. cholera from strain O139. c. Rift Valley fever. d. Lyme disease. ANS: B

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome emerged because of ecological changes. Cholera from the strain O139 emerged in southern Asia in 1992 and was detected in South and Central America within a year. Transmission possibly involved the water on and in cargo ships. Rift Valley fever and Lyme disease both emerged because of ecological changes. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 29 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 3. HIV disease is an example of a disease that has mainly been spread through a. ecological changes. b. microbial changes. c. human behavioral changes. d. breakdowns in public health. ANS: C

Ecological changes involve bringing human beings into close contact with animals or insect vectors. Microbial changes involve mutations in the microbial world.


HIV disease is spread mainly through human behavior such as injection drug abuse and sexual activities. Breakdowns in public health involve a problem or gap with public health measures put into place to protect against the spread of disease. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 28 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 4. What disease was caused by a highly virulent strain of bacterium that developed in India

and was spread to South America? a. Tuberculosis b. Cholera c. HIV-disease d. Lyme disease ANS: B

Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and the number of cases in the US have increased due to increased population densities (e.g., the homeless, prisoners). Cholera (caused by Vibrio cholerae strain O139) emerged in southern Asia in 1992 and was detected in South and Central America within a year. Transmission possibly involved the water on and in cargo ships. HIV-disease is caused by a virus that is passed from person to person via the sharing of body fluids. Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, and is transmitted through tick bites. It was first recognized in the US in 1975 in Lyme Connecticut. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 29 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 5. Which of the following diseases emerged as a result of a breakdown in a public health

measure? a. HIV disease b. Diphtheria in the USSR c. Lyme disease d. Rift valley fever ANS: B

HIV disease emerged primarily due to the human behaviors of injection drug abuse and sexual activities. When the formation of the New Independent States occurred in Russia some vaccination programs were relaxed which resulted in the emergence of 45,000 new cases of diphtheria in 1994. Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, and is transmitted through tick bites. It was first recognized in the US in 1975 in Lyme Connecticut. Rift Valley fever emerged due to ecological changes in the forests near populated sites and along the Senegal River in Africa. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 31 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, Infection Control, I.A. Standard precautions and the prevention of disease transmission 6. Which form of hepatitis was discovered most recently? a. Type E


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