Test Bank For Essentials of Human Diseases and Conditions, 8th Edition 2025 Tracie Fuqua Chapter 1-1 by digitaldownload87

Test Bank For Essentials of Human Diseases and Conditions, 8th Edition 2025 Tracie Fuqua Chapter 1-15 Chapter 01: Mechanisms of Disease, Diagnosis, and Treatment MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Signs of disease a. always cause symptoms. b. rarely correlate with symptoms. c. include abnormal objective findings. d. are always described by the patient. ANS: C

Signs, or abnormal objective findings, are the evidence of disease found by physical examination and diagnostic testing. Signs of disease often correlate with the symptoms. REF: p. 2

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2. Predisposing factors of disease a. precisely predict the occurrence of disease. b. make a person or group more vulnerable to disease. c. never overlap or occur in combination. d. can all be controlled by prevention. ANS: B

A person may be susceptible to a greater or lesser degree, because of one or more risk factors that overlap or occur in combination. Predisposing factors include age, gender, lifestyle, environment, heredity, and immunodeficiency. REF: p. 2

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3. Genetic diseases may be a. produced by an abnormality in or mutation of the genetic code in a single gene. b. caused by several abnormal genes. c. caused by the abnormal presence or absence of a chromosome or an alteration of

the structure of chromosomes. d. All of the answer options ANS: D

Genetic predisposition (inheritance) currently is considered a major risk factor. Hereditary factors in disease that appear regularly in successive generations are likely to affect males and females equally. Hereditary or genetic diseases often develop as a result of the combined effects of inheritance and environmental factors. REF: p. 6

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4. Which statement is true of benign tumors?

a. b. c. d.

Tend to remain encapsulated Infiltrate surrounding tissue Do not compress surrounding tissue or obstruct organs Do not resemble the tissue of origin

ANS: A

Benign tumors usually develop slowly and can arise from any tissue. They tend to remain encapsulated and do not infiltrate surrounding tissue. REF: p. 7

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5. Which statement is true of malignant tumors? a. Tend to infiltrate other tissue. b. Tend to bleed, ulcerate, and become infected. c. May spread to distant sites in the body. d. All of the answer options ANS: D

Malignant tumors can represent a serious threat to the health and life of a person. Cancer cells are variable in appearance and disorderly (anaplastic) and tend to bleed, ulcerate, and become infected. Malignant tumors have the ability to infiltrate and invade the surrounding tissue. Often malignant cells enter the bloodstream or the lymphatic vessels and spread to distant sites in the body leading to tumor growth in other areas of the body. REF: p. 8

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6. Which statement is true regarding the TNM (tumor, nodes, metastasis) cancer staging system? a. Assesses the size and extent of the spread of the primary tumor. b. Is a grading system based on the degree of differentiation of tumor cells. c. Both answer options are true. d. Neither answer options are true. ANS: A

Although a number of different staging systems exist, the majority of cancers use a TNM system. TNM staging assesses the neoplasm in three different areas: the size or extent of the primary tumor (T), the extent of regional lymph node involvement by the tumor (N), and the number of distant metastases (M). REF: p. 10

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7. The tumor Gleason grade reflects which information about the tumor? a. Stage b. Degree of abnormal microscopic appearance of the cells c. Location d. None of the answer options ANS: B

The Gleason grade correlates with extent of disease throughout the body and with prognosis. Analysis of prostate tumor histology is performed, and the two predominant patterns are recorded and scored from 1 to 5 (1 represents a well-differentiated histology; 5 is the most poorly differentiated).

REF: p. 12

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8. Which statement correctly states the sequence of an allergic response within the body? a. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies enter the body and produce an allergen. b. The release of histamine sensitizes mast cells and produces symptoms. c. Exposure to allergen stimulates production of IgE antibodies that can subsequently

trigger symptoms of allergy. d. Histamine produces mast cells, which stimulate plasma cells. ANS: C

Initial exposure to an allergen, which acts as an antigen (a substance that causes the allergic response), stimulates the production of IgE antibodies, and the person thus is sensitized. REF: p. 14

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9. Systemic manifestation(s) of severe allergic responses include which problem? a. Arthralgia b. Status asthmaticus c. Anaphylaxis d. All of the answer options ANS: D

Severe systemic manifestations of allergic responses include anaphylaxis, serum sickness, arthralgia, and status asthmaticus. For example, anaphylaxis (anaphylactic shock), the result of a severe systemic allergic reaction, calls for emergency life-saving intervention. REF: p. 14

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10. Which order of steps is most accurate when making a diagnosis? a. Medical history, physical examination, diagnostic tests, diagnosis, integration of

results, treatment b. Medical history, diagnostic tests, physical examination, treatment plan c. Physical examination, medical history, radiographs, prognosis, integration of all

information d. Comparison of normals, physical examination, history, treatment plan, prognosis ANS: A

Establishing a diagnosis is a decision-making process in which data collected from the medical history, physical examination, and diagnostic tests are analyzed, integrated, and interpreted. A diagnosis provides a logical basis for determining treatment and prognosis. REF: p. 16

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11. Mechanical and chemical barriers, the inflammatory response, and the immune response are a. risk factors for disease. b. the combined effects of inheritance and environmental factors. c. included in the body’s natural defense system against infection. d. agents that damage deoxyribonucleic acid. ANS: C

The body’s natural defense systems against infection include (1) natural mechanical and chemical barriers, such as skin, the cilia, body pH, and normal body flora; (2) the inflammatory response; and (3) the immune response. REF: p. 3

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12. Immune disorders are the result of a breakdown in the body’s defense system that may

generate which problems? a. Allergies b. Autoimmune diseases c. Immunodeficiency disorders d. All of the answer options ANS: D

The immune system is a complex network of specialized cells and organs that has evolved to defend the body against attacks by foreign organisms. REF: p. 14

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13. Immunodeficiency disorders result from a. an exudative response. b. physical trauma. c. motor vehicle accidents. d. a depressed or absent immune response. ANS: D

Causative factors can be primary, manifested by a characteristic decrease in the number of T cells and B cells, leaving the body unable to adequately defend itself against infection and tumors. REF: p. 15

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14. Which statement(s) is/are correct regarding autoimmune diseases? a. The diseases allow the immune system to become self-destructive. b. Many serious diseases have a strong autoimmune component. c. Both answer options are correct. d. Both answer options are incorrect. ANS: C

In autoimmune diseases, antibodies are formed against self-antigens mistakenly identified as foreign. REF: p. 15

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15. Homeostasis refers to a. disease related to age. b. internal stability of the body. c. a chronic disease process. d. genetic predisposition to disease. ANS: B

Pathologic conditions involve measurable changes in normal structure and function that threaten the internal stability, or homeostasis, of the body. REF: p. 2

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16. Pathogens cause disease by a. invasion of living tissue. b. destruction of living tissue. c. intoxication. d. All of the answer options ANS: D

Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens. The result is tissue damage that has the potential for producing systemic involvement. REF: p. 3

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17. The normal protective physiologic response(s) to tissue injury and disease is/are a. infection. b. acute inflammation. c. cachexia. d. All of the answer options ANS: B

Acute inflammation, a normal protective physiologic response to tissue injury and disease, is accompanied by redness, heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function. Widespread inflammation is marked by systemic symptoms, such as fever, malaise, and loss of appetite. REF: p. 3

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18. MRSA refers to a ―superbug‖ that is a. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. b. a common cold virus. c. a noninfectious, noncontagious skin condition. d. All of the answer options ANS: A

In addition to skin infections, MRSA can cause fatal pneumonia, bone infections, and septicemia. Many MRSA strains of bacteria are currently resistant to several different antibiotics. REF: p. 4

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19. The spread of ―superbugs‖ can be controlled by a. frequent, thorough hand washing. b. stricter infection control in all health care facilities. c. considering everyone a risk for infection, especially in hospitals. d. All of the answer options ANS: D

Participating medical facilities have implemented active surveillance testing such as nasal swab tests on patient admission. Public education stresses thorough and frequent hand washing across the board as an effective practice of infection control in the community as well. REF: p. 6

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20. Anaphylaxis, serum sickness, arthralgia, and status asthmaticus are a. part of aging. b. systemic manifestations of severe allergic responses. c. immunodeficiency disorders. d. mild allergic conditions. ANS: B

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21. Which predisposing factor is related to smoking, excessive drinking, poor nutrition, and lack

of exercise? a. Age b. Environment c. Heredity d. Lifestyle ANS: D

Smoking, excessive drinking, poor nutrition, and lack of exercise are predisposing factors associated with a person’s lifestyle. REF: pp. 2-3

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22. In preventive health care, the emphasis is on a. accident intervention. b. freedom of lifestyle. c. prophylactic medical services. d. personal rights. ANS: C

Current statistical evidence indicates that positive personal health behavior, in conjunction with prophylactic medical services, may reduce the mortality rate associated with certain diseases, such as cardiovascular disease. REF: p. 24

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23. The single greatest avoidable cause of death and disease is a. smoking tobacco and exposure to secondhand smoke. b. insufficient exercise. c. a diet high in sodium. d. poor personal hygiene.

ANS: A

Of particular concern is scientific evidence that smoking tobacco and exposure to secondhand smoke is the single greatest avoidable cause of death and disease. Public education in this regard has led to laws that prohibit smoking in many restaurants and other public arenas. REF: p. 24

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24. Vaccines that may be given to prevent cancer include a. human papilloma virus (HPV) vaccine to protect against cervical cancer. b. hepatitis B vaccine that helps prevent liver cancer. c. Both answer options d. Neither answer options ANS: C

There are currently some vaccines that may be given to prevent cancer, such as the HPV vaccine that protects against cervical cancer and the hepatitis B vaccine that helps to protect against liver cancer. REF: p. 12

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25. Which statement(s) is/are true about understanding a patient’s pain? a. Pain is subjective. b. Pain has individualized effects. c. Pain is a necessary entity in life. d. All of the answer options are true. ANS: D

Pain is subjective, individualized, and perceived only by the individual experiencing it. It can be physiologic or psychologic. A variety of pain rating scales, using numbers and figures, are sometimes used to help measure an individual’s perception of pain intensity and quality. REF: p. 21

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26. Osteopathy a. is not practiced by trained medical physicians. b. emphasizes the body’s natural process to heal and provide well-being. c. does not use manipulation techniques. d. All of the answer options ANS: B

Osteopathy is probably the most widely accepted form of alternative medicine. In the United States, osteopathic physicians (Doctors of Osteopathy) are trained medical doctors who emphasize stimulation of the body’s natural processes as a means to promote healing and well-being. In addition to traditional medical and surgical concepts, osteopathic physicians use manipulation techniques to realign body structure, thereby restoring balance and promoting healing. REF: p. 25

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27. Pain may be described as a. dull and aching, burning, or throbbing. b. shooting, dull, stabbing.

c. frightening, intense, tiring. d. All of the answer options ANS: D

The way a patient describes his or her pain is taken seriously. In the clinical setting, assessment of a patient’s pain is noted when vital signs are taken. This information is helpful in tracking the patient’s response to treatment. REF: p. 21

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28. The holistic concept of medical care focuses on a. the needs of the whole person: spiritual, cognitive, social, physical, and emotional. b. narrowly defining physical pathologic changes. c. discounting the needs of a patient as a whole to expedite healing. d. All of the answer options ANS: A

The physical and psychologic well-beings of the individual are dependent on each other. It is this established mind-and-body interaction that compels the holistic health care provider to consider the patient as a whole person. REF: p. 19

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29. Which statement(s) is/are correct concerning chemotherapy treatment for cancer? a. Chemotherapy is most effective against the rapidly developing cells of cancer. b. Many of the side effects of chemotherapy are caused by destruction of some

normal cells in the body. c. Both answer options d. Neither answer options ANS: C

Chemotherapy involves the use of medicines to destroy cancer cells. Most of the drugs affect cell replication, so chemotherapy is most effective against rapidly dividing cells such as cancer cells. Normal cells in other parts of the body that are known to divide rapidly also are often destroyed, and this accounts for many of the classic side effects of chemotherapy. REF: p. 12

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30. Recognizing the aspects of the cultural diversity of patients includes a. language, religious beliefs, views about health issues, and life experiences. b. dietary preferences. c. death rituals and other traditions. d. All of the answer options ANS: D

One important aspect of holistic medicine is recognition of the cultural diversity of patients. The United States continues to grow more culturally diverse. Health care providers must be aware of the challenges of caring for such a diverse population. REF: p. 20 31. Patient education

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a. b. c. d.

helps improve patient and family coping. is interactive. is based on the patient’s plan of care. All of the answer options

ANS: D

The concept of patient teaching is based on patient-centered care, with the patient being a partner in the process of learning skills, solving problems, and preventing complications. Patient education should give an individual the confidence needed to take responsibility for his or her health or recovery. REF: p. 28

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TRUE/FALSE 1. When a product lacks U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval, that may mean

that the ingredients listed outside the bottle may not be inside the bottle, or may not be included in the amount listed. ANS: T

Many such products do not have FDA approval and may damage health if taken unwarily or in conjunction with prescription drugs. REF: p. 12

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2. The use of hormone therapy and immunotherapy in the treatment of cancer continues to

evolve. ANS: T

Hormone therapy can be effective in hormone-dependent cancers, such as breast cancer and prostate cancer. REF: p. 12

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3. The philosophy of hospice affirms life and neither hastens nor postpones death. ANS: T

Terminally ill persons can be referred to hospice care for compassionate, holistic case management. REF: p. 13

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4. Among some common concerns about the health issues of older adults are substance abuse

and nutritional problems. ANS: T

Attention must be paid to the functional status and to the health issues of older adult patients. Common concerns are substance abuse, overmedication, loss of mental acuity, depression, and nutritional problems. REF: p. 15

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5. One of the main goals of patient teaching is to encourage the patient to comply with the

treatment plan to assure recovery. ANS: T

REF: p. 28

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6. In the process of deciding or confirming the identification of a disease, the results of

diagnostic studies are integrated with the medical history and physical examination findings. ANS: T

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Chapter 02: Developmental, Congenital, and Childhood Diseases and Disorders Frazier and Fuqua: Essentials of Human Diseases and Conditions, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which characteristic is true of congenital diseases? a. Always fatal b. Genetic etiology c. Nongenetic d. Can be either physical or mental. ANS: D

Congenital anomalies can be mental or physical and can vary widely in severity, from trivial to fatal. REF: p. 32

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2. Which action can be used as an attempt to halt premature labor and ensure a fetus is more

ready to live outside the uterus if delivered early? a. Having the mother on complete bed rest b. Using drug therapy to slow or halt contractions c. Giving the mother a short course of steroids to aid fetal lung maturation d. All of the answer options ANS: D

Attempts may be made to halt premature labor by having the mother on complete bed rest or using drug therapy to slow or halt contractions. The mother is often given a short course of steroids to aid fetal lung maturation. Many times the efforts to allow the fetus more time to grow and mature in the mother’s uterus are unsuccessful. REF: p. 37

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3. The collapse of a seemingly healthy young athlete during a strenuous sporting event or other

period of stressful exercise is often caused by which condition? a. Patent ductus arteriosis (PDA) b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy c. Respiratory distress syndrome d. Atrial septal defect (ASD) ANS: B

Tragically the first sign of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is often the collapse of a seemingly healthy young athlete during a strenuous sporting event or other period of stressful exercise. This collapse can be followed by cardiac arrest caused by a cardiac arrhythmia. Many have no symptoms until the collapse. It is possible that some individuals experience no symptoms. Signs may be discovered during a physical examination. Symptoms, often ignored by young people, may include chest pain, syncope, hypertension, palpitations, or shortness of breath. Some report experiencing fatigue, shortness of breath when lying down, or reduced tolerance of activity. REF: p. 45

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4. Down syndrome, a genetic syndrome, is the result of the child having ______ pairs of

chromosomes. a. 45 b. 46 c. 47 d. 48 ANS: C

Down syndrome (formerly called mongolism) is a genetic syndrome in which the individual has 47 chromosomes instead of the usual 46, resulting in a congenital form of mild to severe intellectual developmental disorder that is accompanied by characteristic facial features and distinctive physical abnormalities. REF: pp. 45-46

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5. Which condition is the most common crippler of children? a. Spina bifida b. Muscular dystrophy (MD) c. Down syndrome d. Cerebral palsy (CP) ANS: D

Cerebral palsy is the most common crippler of children, is a condition consisting of a group of disorders possibly involving the brain and nervous system functions that deal with movement, learning, hearing, sight, and thinking. This disorder may be congenital or acquired and bilateral or unilateral in the form of a nonprogressive paralysis that results from damage to the central nervous system (CNS). REF: p. 47

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6. All females of child-bearing age capable of becoming pregnant are encouraged to take which

supplement? a. Calcium b. Vitamin D c. Folic acid d. Iron ANS: C

Increased intake of folic acid is encouraged in females planning to become pregnant and during early stages of pregnancy. Because many pregnancies are unplanned, all females of child-bearing age capable of becoming pregnant are encouraged to take the recommended amount of folic acid each day. REF: p. 49

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7. Which statement is true of Duchenne MD? a. Usually the result of trauma b. Progressive and causes crippling and immobility c. Affects males and females equally d. Is not a genetic condition

ANS: B

MD is a progressive degeneration and weakening of the skeletal muscles in which muscle fibers are abnormally vulnerable to injury. There are several types of the disease, but all are rare. The most common and best-known type is Duchenne MD, which is diagnosed soon after birth or during early childhood, usually before the age of 5 years. MD initially affects the muscles of the shoulders, hips, thighs, and calves of the legs, causing the characteristic waddling gait and toe walking. Affected muscles sometimes look larger than normal because fat replaces atrophied muscle. The child also may have lordosis or other spinal deformities. In addition, the child has difficulty climbing stairs and running, tends to fall easily, and has difficulty getting up. As the disease progresses, it involves all the muscles, causing crippling and immobility (see Fig. 2.13). Contractures typically develop, and the child becomes increasingly susceptible to serious pulmonary infections such as pneumonia. Also, children with Duchenne MD often are impaired mentally. REF: p. 48

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8. Which condition is also referred to as hyaline membrane disease? a. Bronchomalacia b. Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) c. Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) d. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) ANS: B

IRDS, or hyaline membrane disease, is similar to adult respiratory distress syndrome in that the patient suffers acute hypoxemia caused by infiltrates within the alveoli. REF: p. 39

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9. The symptoms and signs of anemia include a. pallor, weakness, fatigability, and listlessness. b. an abnormal reduction of red blood cells (RBCs). c. tachycardia, jaundice, and mental sluggishness. d. All of the answer options ANS: D

Anemia is an abnormal reduction in the concentration of RBCs or in the hemoglobin content of circulating blood. Pallor, weakness, fatigability, and listlessness are noted initially in the anemic child or infant. Palpitations, tachycardia, cardiac enlargement, jaundice, and mental sluggishness are symptoms of severe anemia. REF: p. 90

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10. Childhood immunizations are important because a. they are needed to obtain a passport. b. they help prevent colds. c. they prevent epidemics of serious contagious diseases. d. All of the answer options ANS: C

Dramatic results have been achieved in pediatric medicine through routine prophylactic immunization with vaccines that build specific and prolonged protection. To prevent epidemics of contagious diseases, all U.S. states require that children have inoculations before entering school. REF: p. 72

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11. Which warning signs are indicative of lead poisoning? a. Loss of appetite and vomiting b. Irritability and ataxic gait c. Anemia d. All of the answer options ANS: D

Children exposed to toxic levels of lead, a poisonous metallic element, exhibit signs of lead poisoning. Some warning signs are loss of appetite, vomiting, irritability, and ataxic gait. Chronic symptoms include anemia, weakness, colic, and peripheral neuritis. Evidence of intellectual developmental disorder resulting from brain damage is possible. A child with acute lead intoxication presents as a medical emergency. The child has symptoms of encephalopathy with vomiting, headache, stupor, convulsions, and coma resulting from cerebral edema (see Fig. 2.50). REF: p. 93

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12. Which statement(s) is/are true about asthma? a. The bronchial tubes are hyperactive and hypersensitive. b. Severe attacks require hospitalization. c. It is a leading cause of absenteeism in school children. d. All of the answer options are true. ANS: D

Asthma is the result of hyperactive and hypersensitive bronchial tubes. The bronchial spasms of asthma can be triggered by many extrinsic (allergic) or intrinsic (nonallergic) factors, including stress, heavy exercise, infection, and inhalation of allergens or other substances. In a severe attack unresponsive to drug therapy, a condition called status asthmaticus may lead to fatal respiratory failure and thus the need for endotracheal intubation. The patient requires hospitalization for aggressive medical treatment and follow-up. Asthma is a chronic, reversible, obstructive disease caused by increased reactivity of the tracheobronchial tree to various stimuli. There are two major processes at work: constriction of the bronchioles and inflammation of the airway. It is a leading cause of chronic illness and school absenteeism in children. REF: p. 84

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13. Which statement is true in regard to cerebral palsy (CP)? a. Result of damage to the CNS b. Condition that can be cured with treatment c. Condition that primarily affects intelligence d. All of the answer options ANS: A

CP, the most common crippler of children, is a condition consisting of a group of disorders possibly involving the brain and nervous system functions that deal with movement, learning, hearing, sight, and thinking. REF: p. 47

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14. Which statement or statements are true of Down syndrome? a. A congenital form of mild to severe intellectual developmental disorder b. Associated with distinctive physical abnormalities and heart defects c. Caused by a chromosomal abnormality d. All of the answer options ANS: D

Down syndrome, in addition to mild to severe intellectual developmental disorder, is associated with heart defects and other congenital abnormalities. Typically the infant has a small head; a skull with a flat back; a characteristic slant to the eyes; a flat nasal bridge; small, low-set ears; a small mouth with a protruding tongue; and small, weak muscles (see Figs. 2.10 and 2.11). The hands are short with stubby fingers and a deep horizontal crease across the palm (simian line). There is an exaggerated space between the big and little toes. Infants with Down syndrome have an extra chromosome number 21 (trisomy 21). It occurs in 1 in 650 live births and more often in infants born to women more than 35 years of age (see Fig. 2.12). Infants with severe Down syndrome usually are identified at or before birth; milder forms are diagnosed later. The physical characteristics may be blatantly obvious. Findings on examination of the eyes may include the presence of small white dots on the iris. A karyotype showing the chromosomal abnormality can confirm the diagnosis. REF: p. 46

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15. Which condition is the most common cyanotic congenital heart defect that is actually a

combination of four defects? a. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) b. PDA c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. Transposition of the great arteries ANS: C

The most common cyanotic cardiac defect is a combination of four congenital heart defects: (1) VSD, an abnormal opening in the ventricular septum; (2) pulmonary stenosis, a tightening of the pulmonary valve or vessel; (3) dextroposition (displacement to the right) of the aorta, which overrides (receiving circulation from both ventricles) the VSD; and (4) right ventricular hypertrophy, caused by increased pressure in the ventricle. REF: p. 59

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16. Which techniques are used in the diagnostic investigation of a congenital heart defect? a. Physical examination and patient history b. Radiographic studies of the chest and blood tests c. Heart catheterization and electrocardiogram (ECG) d. All of the answer options ANS: D

Physical examination and patient history are essential. The physician palpates the neck vessels and auscultates for blood pressure and murmurs. Diagnostic procedures depend on the initial findings and may include radiographic chest x-ray, blood tests, cardiac catheterization, echocardiogram, and ECG. Many defects can be detected on a prenatal ultrasound. The diagnostic investigation determines the presence and severity of any structural or functional abnormality or defect. REF: p. 60

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17. Which statement is descriptive of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)? a. Causes cleft palate b. Nontraumatic deformity of the tibia c. More common in male infants d. Abnormal development of the hip joint ANS: D

Developmental dysplasia of the hip is an abnormal development of the hip joint that ranges from an unstable joint to dislocation of the femoral head from the acetabulum. REF: p. 62

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18. Which diagnosis is a birth defect in which there is a hole in the middle of the roof of the

mouth? a. Cleft palate b. Cri-du-chat syndrome c. Robinow syndrome d. Meningocele ANS: A

Cleft palate is a birth defect in which there is a hole in the middle of the roof of the mouth (palate). REF: p. 62

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19. A diagnosis of Cryptorchidism indicates a patient has which problem? a. Congenital malignant tumor b. Phimosis c. Failure of the testicle(s) to descend into the scrotum d. Wilms’ tumor ANS: C

Cryptorchidism is failure of one or both of the testicles to descend from the abdominal cavity into the scrotum. REF: p. 63

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20. Which symptoms are associated with Wilms’ tumor? a. Nasal regurgitation during feeding b. Hematuria, pain, and hypertension c. A shortening of the femur d. Projectile vomiting, loss of weight, and skin rash

ANS: B

The most common presentation of Wilm’s tumor is a mass in the kidney region, which is often discovered by a parent or examining physician. The mass is firm, nontender, and usually confined to one side of the body. The patient may experience other symptoms resulting from compression caused by the tumor mass, metabolic alterations caused by the tumor, or metastasis. These include hematuria, pain in the abdomen or chest, hypertension, anemia, vomiting, intestinal obstruction, constipation, weight loss, and fever. REF: p. 64

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21. The disease that involves impairment of intestinal motility, which causes obstruction of the

distal colon, is called a. Hirschsprung disease. b. pyloric stenosis. c. cryptorchidism. d. phimosis. ANS: A

Hirschsprung disease, a congenital condition, is an impairment of intestinal motility that causes obstruction of the distal colon. REF: p. 66

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22. Cystic fibrosis (CF), a chronic dysfunction of the exocrine glands, primarily attacks which

body system? a. Nervous b. Pulmonary c. Cardiovascular d. Immune ANS: B

Cystic fibrosis primarily attacks the lungs and the digestive system, producing copious thick and sticky mucus that accumulates and blocks glandular ducts. Symptoms may become apparent soon after birth or may develop in childhood. REF: p. 68

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23. Which treatment is used when a patient is diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU) includes a. oxygen therapy. b. a high-sodium chloride diet. c. a protein-restricted diet. d. surgical intervention. ANS: C

The treatment for PKU is to place the infant on a phenylalanine-free protein-restricted diet that allows the infant to grow with normal brain development. Individuals with PKU must eat a diet low in phenylalanine for the rest of their lives. Because natural proteins contain phenylalanine, the patient must remain on a protein-restricted diet. Restrictions or elimination of the following food is required: meat, chicken, fish, cheese, nuts, and dairy products. The newborn cannot have breast milk with its high levels of phenylalanine. Some starchy foods, including potatoes, corn, pasta, and bread, require close monitoring. The sweetener aspartame used in diet soda and diet food is metabolized into substances including phenylalanine. REF: p. 69

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24. The production of copious thick and sticky mucus that accumulates and blocks glandular

ducts is characteristic of a. Wilms’ tumor. b. PKU. c. pyloric stenosis. d. CF. ANS: D

The disease primarily attacks the lungs and the digestive system, producing copious thick and sticky mucus that accumulates and blocks glandular ducts. The clinical effects of CF can be immense, including a dry paroxysmal cough, exercise intolerance, pneumonia, bulky diarrhea, vomiting, and bowel obstruction. REF: p. 68

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25. Klinefelter syndrome and Turner syndrome are examples of a. inherited chromosomal diseases. b. genetic, chromosomal diseases that are not inherited. c. chromosomal diseases that affect females only. d. inherited diseases of no significant consequence. ANS: B

Klinefelter syndrome and Turner syndrome are examples of genetic, chromosomal diseases that are not inherited. They result from nondisjunction, or the failure of a chromosome pair to separate, during gamete production (see Fig. 2.33). REF: p. 69

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26. Which statement/s is/are true about erythroblastosis fetalis? a. Antibodies in the mother’s blood destroy the RBCs of the fetus. b. It is characterized in the fetus by anemia, jaundice, and enlargement of the liver

and spleen. c. Neither of the answer options d. Both of the answer options ANS: D