Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 1: Consumer Safety and Drug Regulations
Solution and Answer Guide COLBERT, JAMES & KATRANCHA, ESSENTIALS OF PHARMACOLOGY FOR HEALTH PROFESSIONS, 10E, 2026, 9798214116068; C HAPTER 1: CONSUMER SAFETY AND DRUG REGULATIONS
TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter Review Quiz Answers......................................................................................1
CHAPTER REVIEW QUIZ ANSWERS 1.
The first major U.S. drug law was passed in the year _______ and was called the ___________________. Answer: 1906; Pure Food and Drug Act Feedback: The Pure Food and Drug Act was passed in the U.S. in 1906. It was the first government attempt to establish consumer protection in the manufacture of drugs and foods.
2.
USP stands for _________________________________________________________________ Answer: United States Pharmacopeia Feedback: The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) is a reference that specifies the official U.S. standards for making individual drugs.
3.
NF stands for ___________________________________________________________________ Answer: National Formulary Feedback: The National Formulary (NF) is a reference that specifies the official U.S. standards for making individual drugs. It has been combined with the United States Pharmacopeia (USP) into one reference book, the USP/NF
4.
Which drug law established the USP and NF (which are now one)? Answer: The Pure Food and Drug Act Feedback: The 1906 Pure Food and Drug Act established two references of officially approved drugs: the USP and NP, which were subsequently combined into one single reference source.
5.
The agency that requires you to keep a record of each controlled substance transaction is the __________ Answer: Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) Feedback: The Drug Enforcement Administration enforces security and accountability related to controlled substances. Anyone who dispenses, receives, sells, or destroys controlled substances must keep on hand special DEA forms, indicating the exact current inventory and a two-year inventory of every controlled substance transaction.
6.
Schedule C-_______ has the lowest potential for abuse.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 1: Consumer Safety and Drug Regulations
Answer: Schedule C-V has the lowest potential for abuse Feedback: The 1970 Controlled Substances Act classified abused and addicting drugs into five levels, or schedules, according to their medical value, harmfulness, and potential for abuse or addiction: C-I, C-II, CIII, C-IV, and C-V, with class C-I being the highest potential for abuse, and C-V with the lowest potential for abuse. 7.
How long must you keep an inventory record of each controlled substance transaction at your office? _________________________ Answer: Two years Feedback: The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) enforces security and accountability related to controlled substances, including a two-year inventory of every controlled substance transaction (see also feedback to question 5).
8.
Three responsibilities of the FDA include: _________________________________________________ Answer: Three responsibilities of the FDA include any of the following:
Overseeing testing of all proposed new drugs before they are released into the U.S. market Inspecting plants where foods, drugs, medical devices, or cosmetics are made Reviewing new drug applications and petitions for food additives Investigating and removing unsafe drugs from the market Ensuring proper labeling of foods, cosmetics, and drugs
Feedback: The increase in the number of drugs produced for marketing brought dangers to the public. The federal FDA was established to ensure that some basic standards would be followed. Its responsibilities include the five listed in the answer above. 9.
What types of drugs are listed in the C-V schedule? __________________________________________ Answer: Drugs that have the lowest abuse potential among the five classes or schedules of controlled substance; these consist primarily of cough suppressants containing codeine and antidiarrheal preparations such as diphenoxylate Feedback: Schedule C-V consists primarily of preparations for cough suppressants containing codeine and preparations for diarrhea (e.g., diphenoxylate). Examples include promethazine with codeine, Cheratussin AC, and Lomotil.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 1: Consumer Safety and Drug Regulations
10. What method is recommended for securing the controlled substances at your office? ________________. Answer: The drugs should be kept inside a locked safety box, which is then placed within in a cupboard that is also locked. Feedback: The Drug Enforcement Administration enforces security and accountability related to controlled substances; this includes keeping all controlled substances inside a locked safety box, which is then placed within a cupboard that is also locked. 11. If a patient calls to request a refill of a Percocet (C-II) prescription, how would you reply? _____________ Answer: A refill for a C-II substance cannot be called into a pharmacy as a new prescription is required by law. Feedback: The 1970 Controlled Substances Act set regulations governing which schedules may have prescriptions phoned in to the pharmacy. A refill for a C-II substance cannot be called into a pharmacy; a new written prescription is required. 12. A patient has a rare disease that requires medication for only a small population of patients. Which act has allowed their drug to be produced even though it is not profitable to the pharmaceutical industry? Answer: The Orphan Drug Act of 1983 Feedback: The 1983 Orphan Drug Act provides pharmaceutical companies financial incentives to develop medications for diseases that affect only a small number of people, so that orphan drugs that would otherwise be of low profitability would be available to patients with rare diseases. 13. A patient calls into the office asking for a new prescription for a narcotic medication that they have been taking for six months. You bring up their chart and notice that whereas they have been requesting new prescriptions every 23 days, the medication should last 30 days. Additionally, the patient also mentions that they feel that they are in need of a higher dose, and they become agitated and irritable when you tell them that they will need an appointment. What do you think of this? What should you do? Answer: The medication taking behavior suggests a potential pattern of drug abuse. Nevertheless, the most appropriate action should be to notify the patient’s physician so that they can assess the real need for an increase in the dose and/or frequency of administration. Feedback: The prescription fill record indicated that the patient is getting the narcotic more frequently than what is allowed by their physician for their medical condition. Given the high potential of narcotic abuse, such requests need to be addressed by the physician. 14. Each drug is given a ____________ number to identify the manufacturer, the drug, and the package size. a. FDA b. USP c. DEA d. NDC Answer: d Feedback: The National Drug Code (NDC) is a directory of numerical codes that allow identification of a drug, as well as the package size and the manufacturer. This directory provides a list of all drugs manufactured for commercial distribution. The NDC is comprised of three parts: the first part is five numbers and identifies the manufacturer, the second part is four numbers and identifies the drug, and the third part is two digits and identifies the package size. 15. Answer the questions concerning the following three drug labels:
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 1: Consumer Safety and Drug Regulations
a.
Which drug(s) requires a prescription?
Answer: Morphine Sulfate and Procardia (nifedipine) Feedback: Both Morphine and Procardia (nifedipine) require a prescription and cannot be purchased over the counter. b.
Which drug(s) can be bought without a prescription?
Answer: Acetaminophen Feedback: Acetaminophen can be obtained over the counter from any pharmacy without a prescription. c.
Which drug(s) require(s) a DEA number?
Answer: Morphine Sulfate Feedback: Morphine is a controlled substance that requires not only a prescription but also that the ordering and dispensing, respectively, needs to be by a physician and a pharmacist that have a DEA number indicating their proper registration with the agency. 16. Drug standards ensure consistency in all the areas EXCEPT a. strength b. purity c. quality d. size Answer: d Feedback: Drug standards assure consumers that the drugs they take are of uniform strength, purity, and quality. 17. The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 established which agency? a. NDC b. DEA c. FDA d. USP Answer: c Feedback: The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 established the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) under the Department of Health and Human Services to enforce the provisions of the Act.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 1: Consumer Safety and Drug Regulations
18. The earliest recorded use of drugs occurred during which civilization? a. Egyptian b. Roman c. Greek d. Aztec Answer: a Feedback: The first documented use of drugs was in ancient Egypt.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 2: Drug Names and References
Solution and Answer Guide COLBERT, JAMES & KATRANCHA, ESSENTIALS OF PHARMACOLOGY FOR HEALTH PROFESSIONS, 10E, 2026, 9798214116068; CHAPTER 2: DRUG NAMES AND REFERENCES
TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter Review Quiz Answers......................................................................................1
CHAPTER REVIEW QUIZ ANSWERS Match the definition with the term. Definition 1. List of conditions for which a drug is meant to be used 2. Subcategories of drugs based on their effects on the body 3. Description of the cellular changes that occur as a result of a drug 4. Conditions for which a drug should not be given
Term Answer c. Indications f. Classifications e. Actions a. Contraindications
Refer to the following drug description to answer questions 5–8. AZO Standard® (phenazopyridine HCl tablets, USP) Product of i-Health, a Division of DSM Description: AZO Standard (phenazopyridine HCl) is a urinary tract analgesic agent, chemically designated 2, 6-pyridinediamine, 3-(phenylazo), monohydrochloride. 5.
The generic name of the drug is ______________________________ Answer: phenazopyridine HCl Feedback: The generic name is a common or general name assigned to the drug by the United States Adopted Name (USAN) council. It is differentiated from the trade name by initial lowercase letter and is never capitalized.
6.
The chemical name of the drug is ______________________________ Answer: 2, 6-pyridinediamine, 3-(phenylazo), monohydrochloride Feedback: The chemical name is the exact molecular formula of the drug. It usually consists of a long, very difficult name to pronounce.
7.
The trade name of the drug is __________________________________ Answer: AZO Standard® © 2026 Cengage Learning, Inc. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 2: Drug Names and References
Feedback: The trade name is the name by which a pharmaceutical company identifies its product. It is copyrighted and used exclusively by that company and is differentiated from the generic name by capitalized first letter. It is often shown on labels and references with the symbol ® (for “registered” trademark) after the name. 8.
What is indicated by the ® symbol after the drug name? _________________ Answer: The symbol ® means “registered” trademark, which is often associated with the trade name of a drug. Feedback: A symbol associated with copyright or patent and refers to a name used exclusively by the drug company possessing that copyright or patent.
9.
Explain when Tall Man Lettering should be used. ____________________________________________________________________ Answer: Tall Man Lettering is used to highlight the differences between look-alike and sound-alike drugs. Feedback: Tall Man Lettering is often used to highlight the differences between the look-alike and soundalike drugs. For example, whereas Celexa would be written CeleXA, Celebrex would be written CeleBREX. This ensures that the health care professional reads and recognizes the correct medication.
10. Explain the difference between these two medication orders: a. Give two Tylenol, PO. b. Give one Tylenol No. 2 PO. ______________________________________________________________________ Answer: Although both medications are to be taken orally, the first order is for two Tylenol (acetaminophen) whereas the second order is a prescription for a controlled substance because it is for a single dose of a combination product consisting of acetaminophen and codeine. Feedback: Tylenol is not the same as Tylenol in combination with different amounts of codeine, and one such example is Tylenol No. 2. 11. An older adult male was found unconscious in his bedroom with several pink and blue pills beside his bed, but no labeled pill bottle can be found. He is rushed to the emergency department for treatment. What drug reference source will be most helpful in this situation? Answer: Any of the following references are correct:
AHFS Drug Information (American Health-System Formulary Service) Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) U.S. Pharmacopeia/Dispensing Information (USP/DI) Reliable professional websites such as http://www.fda.gov http://www.pharmacist.com http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/ http://www.safemedication.com http://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/ © 2026 Cengage Learning, Inc. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 2: Drug Names and References
Feedback: Although there are multiple choices of references available today, some examples of useful drug references as well as creditable websites are indicated in the preceding list. 12. Place the following terms in the correct blank: OTC, controlled substance, legend drug, off-label a. ____________ a prescription is not needed Answer: OTC Feedback: OTC means over the counter and hence no prescription is required. b.
____________ term that means a prescription is required
Answer: Legend drug Feedback: A legend drug is one that is determined unsafe for OTC purchase because of possible harmful side effects if taken indiscriminately. As a result, a prescription from a health care provider is necessary. c.
____________ potential for abuse
Answer: Controlled substance Feedback: Controlled substances are abused and addicting drugs with different medical value, harmfulness, and potential for abuse or addiction. d.
____________ drug given for an unapproved use
Answer: Off-label drug Feedback: Drugs approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) have one or more official indications. On the other hand, a drug can be used off-label by some clinicians based on their own experience, and the use of such drugs for use unapproved by the FDA is known as off-label use.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 3: Sources and Bodily Effects of Drugs
Solution and Answer Guide COLBERT, JAMES & KATRANCHA, ESSENTIALS OF PHARMACOLOGY FOR HEALTH PROFESSIONS, 10E, 2026, 9798214116068; CHAPTER 3: SOURCES AND BODILY EFFECTS OF DRUGS
TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter Review Quiz Answers......................................................................................1
CHAPTER REVIEW QUIZ ANSWERS Fill in the blanks. 1.
For drug sources, examples, drug name, and classification Answer: Refer to the completed table that lists the answers. Drug Sources Animals
Example Thyroid Gland of Animals Hepatitis B vaccine
Drug Name Thyroid, USP
Classification Hormone
Recombivax HB
Vaccine
Insulin Growth Hormone Magnesium Zinc Gold
Humulin, Novolin Nutropin Milk of Magnesia Zinc Oxide Ointment Auranofin
Plants
Cinchona Bark Purple Foxglove Plant Poppy Plant (Opium)
Quinidine Digitalis Morphine, Codeine
Synthetic
meperidine diphenoxylate co-trimoxazole
Demerol Lomotil Bactrim, Septra
Anti-diabetic Hormone Antacid, Laxative Sunscreen, Skin Protectant Anti-inflammatory; Used in the Treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis Anti-arrhythmic Cardiotonic Analgesic, Analgesic, Antitussive Analgesic Antidiarrheal Anti-infective Sulfonamide; Used in the Treatment of Urinary Tract Infections (UTI) and some other Infections
DNA/Genetic Engineered
Minerals
Feedback: There are different sources of drugs.
Animals: Substances lacking in the human body can be replaced with similar substances obtained from the glands, organs, and tissues of animals.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 3: Sources and Bodily Effects of Drugs
2.
DNA and genetic engineering of drugs using recombinant DNA technology has allowed for the production of biologically active substances that are present in the body and that can be used to treat certain diseases. Minerals from the earth are another source and include examples such as iron, potassium, and silver. Plants were the primary sources of drugs used on the human body, and examples include bark, leaves, and resin from trees. Synthetic (manufactured) sources: Chemists use synthetic sources to make drugs to market for human consumption. The synthetic (manufactured) sources have evolved with human skills in laboratories and advanced understanding of chemistry.
Drugs that are distributed throughout the body have _______________ effects. Answer: systemic Feedback: Systemic effects are produced by a drug that reaches widespread areas of the body. Systemic effects are widespread because the medication reaches the bloodstream and is carried throughout the body.
3.
Drugs whose action is limited to a specific location have _____________ effects. Answer: local Feedback: Local effects of a drug are limited to the area of the body where the drug is administered.
4.
As drugs pass through the body, they undergo four processes: Answer: Refer to the completed table that lists the answers. Process Absorption Distribution
Definition of Process Passage through a membrane into the bloodstream Moving from the bloodstream into tissues and fluids of the body
Metabolism
Physical and chemical alterations that the substance undergoes in the body Eliminating waste products of drug metabolism from the body
Excretion
Feedback: Within the body, drugs undergo several changes. From start to finish, the biological changes consist of four drug processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. The net result of these four biological processes determines the amount of drug in the body at a specific time after drug administration. 5.
Factors that may affect the passage of drugs through the body: Answer: Refer to the completed table that lists the answers.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 3: Sources and Bodily Effects of Drugs
Process
Primary Site of Process
Conditions That May Alter Process Incorrect administration may destroy the drug before it reaches the bloodstream or its site of action (e.g., giving certain antibiotics after meals instead of on an empty stomach)
Absorption
Mucosa of the stomach, mouth, small intestine, or rectum; blood vessels in the muscles or subcutaneous tissues; or dermal layers
Distribution
Circulatory system, through capillaries and across cell membranes
Poor circulation (impaired flow of blood) may prevent the drug from reaching tissues where it is to have its desired effect
Metabolism
Liver, small intestine
Hepatitis, cirrhosis of the liver, or a damaged liver may prevent adequate breakdown of the drug, thus causing a build-up or accumulation of unmetabolized drug
Excretion
Kidney, lungs, large intestine
Renal damage or kidney failure may prevent passage of drug waste products, thereby causing an accumulation of the drug in the body
Feedback: Many variables affect the rate and/or extent of drug passage through the body via these four biological processes. 6.
If circulation is poor, metabolism is faulty, or excretion is inadequate, drugs may build up in the system, leading to _______________ effects, causing poisonous, or ____________________, levels of the drug. Answer: increased pharmacologic, toxic Feedback: Poor circulation will bring less blood and hence less drug to the two primary organs of elimination, hence reducing overall drug elimination with resultant higher amount of drug (toxic levels) and increased pharmacologic effect.
7.
Variables affecting the efficiency of drug action include _________, ________, _______, and ________. Answer: age, weight, sex, and psychological state Feedback: Age: Metabolism and excretion are slower in older adults. Weight: Many drug dosages are always calculated on the basis of the patient’s weight. Sex: Females respond differently than males to some drugs. The ratio of fat per body mass differs, and so do hormone levels. Drugs should be selected carefully for individuals who may be pregnant or nursing. Psychological state: A good example of psychological state as a variable affecting drug response is the placebo effect, which describes the phenomenon that the more positive the patient feels about the medication being taken, the more positive the physical response.
Match the term with the definition. Term
Definition Answer
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 3: Sources and Bodily Effects of Drugs
8. Synergism 9. Antagonism 10. Potentiation 11. Lethal dose 12. Toxic dose 13. Maintenance dose 14. Idiosyncrasy 15. Tolerance
e. f. d. b. c. a. h. j.
16. Dependence
g.
17. Teratogenic
i.
Drugs working together for a better effect Drugs working against each other or counteracting each other’s effect One drug making the effect of another drug more powerful Amount of drug that can cause death Amount of drug that can cause dangerous side effects Amount of drug required to keep drug level steady Unusual response to a drug, other than expected effect Decreased response after repeated use of a drug, increased dosage required for effect Acquired need for a drug, with symptoms of withdrawal when discontinued Effects on a fetus from maternal use of a drug
Feedback:
Synergism: The action of two drugs working together in which one helps the other simultaneously for an effect that neither could produce alone. Antagonism: The opposing action of two drugs in which one decreases or cancels out the effect of the other. Potentiation: The action of two drugs in which one prolongs or multiplies the effect of the other. Lethal dose: Dose that causes death. Toxic dose: Amount of a drug that will produce harmful side effects or symptoms of poisoning. Maintenance dose: Dose required to keep the level of a drug in the blood at a steady state to maintain the desired effect. Idiosyncratic reaction: Unique, unusual, and unexpected response to a drug. Tolerance: Decreased response to a drug that develops after repeated doses are given. Dependence: Acquired need for a drug that may produce psychological or physical symptoms of withdrawal when the drug is discontinued. Teratogenic effect: Effect from maternal drug administration that causes physical defects in a fetus.
Fill in the blanks. 18. An allergy or immune response to a drug is called __________________ Answer: hypersensitivity Feedback: Hypersensitivity is an immune response (allergy) to a drug and may be of varying degrees. May be mild with no immediate effects; rash or hives may appear after three to four days of drug therapy. May develop after uneventful previous uses of a drug.
More likely to exist in patients with other known allergies.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 3: Sources and Bodily Effects of Drugs
19. Allergic reactions to drugs may be mild, with symptoms such as _____________ Answer: abdominal cramps, rash, and urticaria Feedback: Allergic reactions can have a range of mild symptoms manifested as abdominal cramps, rash, and urticaria. 20. Allergic reactions to drugs are more common in patients with ______________ Answer: other known allergies. Feedback: Allergic reactions to drugs are likely to exist in patients with other known allergies. They can also develop after uneventful previous uses of a drug. 21. Severe allergic reaction with shock, laryngeal edema, and dyspnea is called _________________________ Answer: anaphylactic reaction Feedback: Anaphylactic reaction is a severe, possibly fatal, allergic (hypersensitivity) response. Its signs include itching, urticaria (hives), hyperemia (reddened, warm skin), vascular collapse, shock, cyanosis, laryngeal edema, and dyspnea (difficulty breathing). 22. Treatment of severe anaphylactic reactions can include the following: _______, ________, and ______ Answer: epinephrine, fluids, cardiopulmonary resuscitation Feedback: Treatment of anaphylactic reactions includes cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) if indicated and drugs as required: epinephrine (Adrenalin) and fluids to raise blood pressure; corticosteroid (SoluMedrol) to reduce inflammation and the body’s immunological response; or antihistamine (Benadryl) to suppress histamine, thereby reducing redness, itching, and edema. 23. What is the fastest-acting route of administration? a. oral b. rectal c. transdermal d. intravenous Answer: d Feedback: The intravenous route puts drugs directly into the systemic circulation, without any delay in time secondary to the movement of the drug through biological membrane such as GI mucosa (oral and rectal), or capillaries supplying the skin (transdermal). 24. What is the most common and easiest route of administration? a. IV b. IM c. PO d. PR Answer: c Feedback: The oral route (PO) is the most common drug administration route as it does not involve injection (intravenous or intramuscular) and specialized formulation such as suppository for rectal administration. 25. Which route is used when only a local effect is desired? a. topical
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 3: Sources and Bodily Effects of Drugs
b. c. d.
transdermal oral otic
Answer: d Feedback: Otic administration is for a local effect in the ear whereas topical, transdermal and topical administration produce systemic effects.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 4: Medication Preparations and Supplies
Solution and Answer Guide COLBERT, JAMES & KATRANCHA, ESSENTIALS OF PHARMACOLOGY FOR HEALTH PROFESSIONS, 10E, 2026, 9798214116068; CHAPTER 4: MEDICATION PREPARATIONS AND SUPPLIES
TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter Review Quiz Answers......................................................................................1
CHAPTER REVIEW QUIZ ANSWERS Fill in the blanks. 1.
a.
Which route of administration is used most often? Why? _________________________________
Answer: oral route. Many drug forms for the oral route are commonly available over the counter and include thousands of trade name products. Feedback: The oral route is the easiest and probably the cheapest for administration. It is, however, not the route of choice for the treatment of emergencies, acute pain, nothing by mouth (NPO) patients, or patients who are unable to swallow. b. Which route is fastest? _______________________________________ Answer: intravenous route Feedback: The intravenous route puts drugs directly into the systemic circulation, without any delay in time secondary to movement of the drug through biological membranes such as GI mucosa (oral and rectal), or capillaries supplying the skin (transdermal). Complete with the appropriate drug form. 2.
A tablet placed under the tongue: ___________________________________ Answer: sublingual Feedback: Sublingual administration refers to an oral dose placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve slowly.
3.
A tablet placed in the cheek pouch: ___________________________________ Answer: buccal Feedback: Buccal administration refers to an oral dose placed in the cheek pouch and gums and allowed to dissolve slowly.
4.
A tablet dissolved in the mouth for local action: ________________________ Answer: lozenge
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 4: Medication Preparations and Supplies
Feedback: A lozenge (troche) is a tablet to be dissolved in the mouth for local action. It contains palatable flavoring, indicated for a local (often soothing) effect on the throat or mouth. 5.
A coated tablet that dissolves in the intestines instead of in the stomach: ___________________________________ Answer: enteric-coated tablet Feedback: An enteric-coated tablet is a tablet with a special coating that resists disintegration by gastric juices. The coating dissolves farther down the GI tract in the enteric, or intestinal, region. Some drugs that are irritating to the stomach, such as aspirin, are available in enteric-coated tablets.
6.
A tablet or capsule that has delayed action over a longer period of time: ___________________________________ Answer: sustained-release tablet or capsule Feedback: A sustained-release tablet or capsule is a dosage form designed to have delayed action over a longer period of time.
7.
A liquid drug form with an alcohol base: ___________________________________ Answer: elixir Feedback: An elixir (fluid extract) is a liquid drug form with an alcohol base.
8.
A liquid medication that must be shaken before administration: ___________ Answer: suspension Feedback: A suspension is a liquid form of medication that must be shaken well before administration because the drug particles settle at the bottom of the bottle.
9.
Drugs given by the rectal route include: __________________________ Answer: Suppository; enema Feedback: The rectal route of administration is often the choice if the patient is ordered to be NPO or cannot swallow. The most common classifications of drugs given rectally include laxatives, sedatives, antiemetics (prevent vomiting), and antipyretics (reduce fever).
10. The parenteral route refers to any route other than the GI route. Name four parenteral routes: ___________________________________ Answer: injection; topical; transdermal; inhalation Feedback: Parenteral technically refers to any route not involving the GI tract, including injection, topical (skin or mucosal), transdermal, and the inhalation route. The parenteral route has become known as the “injectable” route and the topical, transdermal, and inhalation routes are routes that stand in a category often labeled “other routes.”
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 4: Medication Preparations and Supplies
Fill in the blanks. 11. Topical drug forms include those applied to the ___________________ and ______________________. Answer: dermis; mucosa Feedback: Topical drug forms include drugs for dermal (skin) application and drugs for mucosal application. For example, cream or ointment, lotion, liniment, and transdermal patch. 12. Medicine for injection is contained in two types of glass containers: a. With rubber stopper on top: ________________________________________________________ Answer: vial Feedback: In vial, glass container is sealed at the top by a rubber stopper to enhance the sterility of the contents. Contents may be a solution or a powdered drug that needs to be reconstituted. Vials may be multiple dose or unit dose. b.
All glass to be broken at the neck: ____________________________________________________
Answer: ampule Feedback: An ampule is a small glass container that holds a single dose of sterile solution for injection, and it must be broken at the neck to obtain the solution. 13. Needles are selected according to two measurements: ___________________ and __________________. Answer: length; gauge Feedback: Needles for injections have two measurements: length and gauge. Length varies from short (⅜ inch) to medium (1–1 ½ inches) for standard injections. Longer needles (2 to 5 inches) may be used for specialized forms of administration, e.g. intraosseous and intra-articular injections. Gauge is a number that represents the diameter of the needle lumen or opening. Needle gauges in common use vary from 16 (largest) to 31 (smallest). 14. The three most commonly used syringes for injections are ___________________, ________________, and ___________________. Answer: insulin syringe, standard hypodermic syringe, tuberculin (TB) syringe Feedback: The three most common disposable syringes used for parenteral administration of drugs are 1) the insulin syringe (used strictly for administering insulin to diabetics), 2) standard hypodermic syringe (used for either subcutaneous or IM injections), and 3) the tuberculin syringe (the most commonly used for newborn and pediatric dosages and for skin tests).
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 4: Medication Preparations and Supplies
Labeling. 15. Label the parts of a syringe. a. Luer-Loc syringe hub b. Plunger c. Needle d. Barrel e. Rubber plunger tip Multiple choice. 16. Which of the following are inhalation drug forms? (Select all that apply.) a. mist b. spray c. dry powder inhaler d. emulsion e. suspension Answer: a, b, c Feedback: For inhalation administration, a liquid drug is placed in a device that will create a fine mist or aerosol that contains tiny droplets of medication. A patient may also instill aerosol sprays into a respiratory tract with a device known as dry powder inhaler. An emulsion is usually for topical or transdermal administration, and a suspension is usually for oral administration. 17. Which of the following is an advantage of the transdermal patch? a. easy application b. inconsistent absorption c. effective for short periods of time d. no systemic effects Answer: a Feedback: The transdermal patch is easy to apply with minimal discomfort or undesirable taste. It produces consistent blood level of medication over a prolonged period of time. 18. Which statement is correct? a. IV drips are a way of administering large volumes of fluids b. IV push is a way of administering large volumes of fluids c. IVPB is a way of administering large volumes of fluids d. There is no way to administer large volumes of fluids via the IV route Answer: a Feedback: IV infusion or IV drip is used to administer large volumes of fluids. On the other hand, IV push is used to administer a small volume of a drug. An IV piggyback (IVPB) is used for administration of a drug diluted in moderate volume (50–100 mL) of fluid for intermittent infusion at specified intervals.
© 2026 Cengage Learning, Inc. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 4: Medication Preparations and Supplies
19. Which of the following routes has the slowest absorption? a. intradermal b. intramuscular c. subcutaneous d. intravenous Answer: a Feedback: Intradermal provides the slowest absorption because of the lack of vascularity in the dermis. 20. Which angle is used to administer an intramuscular injection? a. 90 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 15 degrees d. 10 degrees Answer: a Feedback: For intramuscular injection, the needle is inserted at a 90-degree angle. For subcutaneous injection, the needle is inserted at a 45-degree angle. For intradermal injection, the needle is inserted at a 10- to 15-degree angle.
© 2026 Cengage Learning, Inc. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 5: Abbreviations and Systems of Measurement
Solution and Answer Guide COLBERT, JAMES & KATRANCHA, ESSENTIALS OF PHARMACOLOGY FOR HEALTH PROFESSIONS, 10E, 2026, 9798214116068; CHAPTER 5: ABBREVIATIONS AND SYSTEMS OF MEASUREMENT
TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter Review Quiz Answers......................................................................................1
CHAPTER REVIEW QUIZ ANSWERS Interpret the following orders. 1.
Keflex 250-mg cap PO q6h ____________________________________________ Answer: One Keflex 250-mg capsule by mouth every six hours
2.
Neosporin ophth sol 2 gtt in OU tid ____________________________________________ Answer: Neosporin ophthalmic solution two drops in each eye three times daily
3.
Feosol 65-mg tab bid pc
c
orange juice
____________________________________________ Answer: One Feosol 65-mg tablet two times a day, after meals and with orange juice 4.
Diuril 500 mg PO qAM ____________________________________________ Answer: One Diuril 500 mg by mouth every morning
5.
Dyazide 1 cap bid ____________________________________________ Answer: One Dyazide capsule twice a day
6.
Demerol 50 mg IM q4h PRN for pain ____________________________________________ Answer: Demerol 50 mg intramuscularly every four hours as needed for pain
7.
Metamucil 1tsp mixed
c
8oz H2O bid pc
____________________________________________ Answer: Metamucil 1 teaspoon mixed with 8 ounces of water twice a day after meals
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 5: Abbreviations and Systems of Measurement
8.
Dulcolax supp R PRN for constipation ____________________________________________ Answer: One Dulcolax suppository rectally as needed for constipation
9.
Robitussin syr 1tsp q4h PRN for cough ____________________________________________ Answer: Robitussin syrup 1 teaspoon every four hours as needed for cough
10. Nitrostat 1 tab SL PRN for angina attack, may repeat q5min three times ____________________________________________ Answer: Nitrostat one tablet sublingually as needed for angina attack, may repeat every five minutes for three times 11. Phenergan supp 25 mg PRN q6h for nausea ____________________________________________ Answer: One Phenergan suppository 25 mg as necessary every six hours for nausea 12. Discontinue Phenergan 48h post-op ____________________________________________ Answer: Discontinue Phenergan 48 hours after surgery 13. Glipizide 5 mg PO daily
c
breakfast
____________________________________________ Answer: One Glipizide 5 mg by mouth every day with breakfast 14. Cefazolin 1 g IVPB q8h ____________________________________________ Answer: Cefazolin 1 g intravenously by IV piggyback every eight hours 15. Potassium chloride 20 mEq in NS 1L IV to run at 80 mL per hour ____________________________________________ Answer: Potassium chloride 20 milliequivalents in 1 L normal saline intravenously to run at 80 milliliters per hour 16. NPH Insulin 20 units subcu daily ac breakfast ____________________________________________ Answer: NPH Insulin 20 units subcutaneously every day before breakfast 17. Glyburide 2.5 mg daily
c
breakfast
____________________________________________ Answer: One Glyburide 2.5 mg every day with breakfast 18. Gentamicin ophth sol 1 gtt q3h OD ____________________________________________
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Solution and Answer Guide: Colbert, James & Katrancha, Essentials of Pharmacology for Health Professions, 10e, 2026, 9798214116068; Chapter 5: Abbreviations and Systems of Measurement
Answer: Gentamicin ophthalmic solution one drop in the right eye every three hours 19. Cefaclor suspension 20 mg/kg/day in two equal doses q12h ____________________________________________ Answer: Cefaclor suspension 20 mg per kilogram daily in two equal doses every 12 hours
© 2026 Cengage Learning, Inc. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.
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