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Chap 01_5ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Highly differentiated tissues, such as nervous tissue and cardiac muscle, are incapable of new cell production. a. True b. False 2. Most homeostatic mechanisms operate on the principle of positive feedback. a. True b. False 3. The skeletal system is the site of synthesis for all the different types of blood cells. a. True b. False 4. In addition to regulating fluid balance, the level of electrolytes in the extracellular fluid is controlled for other reasons. a. True b. False 5. Blood is a type of connective tissue. a. True b. False 6. With positive feedback, a control system’s input and output continue to enhance each other. a. True b. False 7. Interstitial fluid is the fluid component of blood. a. True b. False 8. Negative feedback operates to maintain a controlled factor in a relatively steady state, whereas positive feedback moves a controlled variable even further from a steady state. a. True b. False 9. Describing body processes in terms of the bodily need that they fulfill explains a physiological concept using a teleological perspective. a. True b. False 10. The plasma surrounds and bathes all the body’s cells. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_5ce 11. Not all activities performed by the muscular and nervous systems are directed toward maintaining homeostasis. a. True b. False 12. The cellular level is the smallest level of organization in the body. a. True b. False 13. Different cell types in the body are capable of performing unique functions because of cell differentiation. a. True b. False 14. The endocrine system can adjust kidney function to maintain electrolyte balance in the body. a. True b. False 15. Organs are created when specialized cells that carry out similar functions come together. a. True b. False 16. All substances that enter and leave the body must pass through a layer of epithelial cells to do so. a. True b. False 17. A mechanistic explanation of why a person sweats is to cool off. a. True b. False 18. Homeostasis is considered a fixed state because it is designed to keep variables at a predefined set point. a. True b. False 19. In a negative-feedback system, the effector compares the level of a controlled variable to its set point. a. True b. False 20. Feedforward mechanisms bring about a response in reaction to a change in a regulated variable. a. True b. False 21. An exocrine gland is an example of structure composed of connective tissue. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_5ce 22. Homeostatic control systems are grouped into two classes: intrinsic and extrinsic controls. a. True b. False 23. The endocrine system functions with the circulatory system for the transport of hormones. a. True b. False 24. Sweat rate is a variable that is under homeostatic control. a. True b. False 25. Intestine, heart, and skin do not consist of hormone-secreting cells. a. True b. False 26. A lumen is a cavity within a hollow organ or tube. a. True b. False 27. If body temperature increases, skeletal muscle is the effector that will bring about the necessary actions to reduce it. a. True b. False 28. Tissues are composed of two or more types of cells organized to perform a particular function or functions. a. True b. False 29. The external environment is found outside cells but inside the body. a. True b. False 30. Some organs, such as the heart, skin, and intestine, belong to more than one body system. a. True b. False 31. Endocrine glands secrete hormones into ducts that then drain into the capillaries. a. True b. False 32. Homeostasis is both created by and required by cells. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 33. In which body system would you find the source of all the different types of blood cells? a. endocrine system b. integumentary system c. muscular system d. skeletal system 34. Through which process do cells become more specialized to carry out specific functions? a. division b. differentiation c. maturation d. meiosis 35. In a negative-feedback loop, which component compares the level of a variable to its set point level? a. receptor b. control centre c. effector d. set point 36. Which of these statements is characteristic of connective tissue? a. It has relatively few cells dispersed within an abundance of extracellular matrix. b. It has no blood vessels. c. It covers various parts of the body. d. It is usually found in the walls of hollow cavities. 37. What type of tissue has cells that are specialized to generate force? a. connective b. muscle c. bone d. nervous 38. What type of fluid resides within cells? a. intracellular b. interstitial c. extracellular d. plasma 39. Who was the first Canadian to win the Nobel Prize in Physiology and Medicine in 1923 for discovering insulin? a. Ralph Steinman b. David H. Hubel c. Charles B. Huggins d. Frederick Banting 40. Which of these statements describes the internal environment? a. It consists of intracellular fluid. b. It is in direct contact with the body’s cells and consists of the extracellular fluid. c. It is inside the body but not in direct contact with the body’s cells. d. It is outside the body and keeps the fluid volume in unchanging composition. 41. Which of the following is a type of connective tissue? a. exocrine glands b. endocrine glands c. blood d. smooth muscle tissue

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Chap 01_5ce 42. Which of the following are two examples of exocrine glands? a. sweat glands and glands that secrete digestive juices b. mammary glands and pancreas c. bladder and kidneys d. thyroid gland and sweat glands 43. Which progression represents the hierarchy of organization, from simplest to most complex? a. atom, cell, tissue, organ, system, organism b. tissue, cell, system, organism, organ, body c. system, atom, cell, organ, tissue, organism d. atom, molecule, compound, cell, body, organism 44. Which of these statements best describes an organ? a. a collection of cells that collectively carry out a body function b. a group of separate body structures that perform similar function, but come together to carry out activities that are vital for survival c. a structure made up of two or more different types of primary tissue that work together to perform a function for the body d. a structure that the body could not survive without 45. Which one of these sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization? a. cell, organ, tissue, system, organism b. cell, tissue, organ, system, organism c. tissue, cell, system, organism, organ d. tissue, cell, organism, system, organ 46. What type of tissue has cells that are specialized for sending messages over long distances? a. connective b. muscle c. bone d. nervous 47. The hormone insulin enhances the transport of glucose (sugar) from the blood into most of the body’s cells. Its secretion is controlled by a negative-feedback system between the concentration of glucose in the blood and insulin-secreting cells. How does this negative-feedback system work? a. A decrease in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn further lowers the blood glucose concentration. b. An increase in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn lowers the blood glucose concentration. c. A decrease in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn increases the blood glucose concentration. d. An increase in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which further increases the blood glucose concentration. 48. Which of these statements describes extracellular fluid? a. It is the external environment of the body. b. It is the fluid inside each cell. c. It consists of plasma only. d. It consists of plasma and interstitial fluid.

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Chap 01_5ce 49. Physiology is most closely related to which other scientific discipline? a. biology b. anatomy c. biochemistry d. chemistry 50. Platelets, which have negatively charged cell membranes, adhere to the positively charged surface of a torn blood vessel. As they do so, they release substances that attract more platelets to the damaged area and change the charge on their cell membranes to positive. More platelets adhere to the damaged area. The cycle repeats until the damaged area is sealed. What sort of feedback loop is formed, and why? a. positive-feedback loop: the response reinforces the initial change b. negative-feedback loop: the response opposes the initial stimulus c. negative-feedback loop: having too many platelets in one area blocks blood flow d. positive-feedback loop: the response prevents a person from haemorrhaging to death 51. Which of the following is NOT a basic cell function that is common to all cells of the body? a. performing chemical reactions of metabolism b. sensing and responding to environmental conditions c. reproducing d. synthesizing proteins 52. What type of fluid is the fluid component of blood? a. intracellular b. interstitial c. extracellular d. plasma 53. Why do most cells depend on other cells of the body for survival? a. because cells do not contain fluid b. because all cells of the body are physically connected with one another c. because body cells cannot perform all life-sustaining functions on their own d. because most cells of the body do not directly interact with the external environment and therefore need other cells to provide nutrients and remove wastes 54. Which of these statements applies to the integumentary system? a. It eliminates unwanted substances from the body to the external environment. b. It consists of the heart, blood vessels, and lungs in the pulmonary cavity. c. It is important for protection of the body and also participates in temperature regulation. d. It is responsible for taking up required essential nutrients for the body. 55. Which of these statements applies to homeostasis? a. It is a fixed state. b. It is only required for certain cells of the body to survive. c. Changes occur, but deviations from a set point are minimized. d. Only factors external to the body are capable of triggering responses designed to maintain homeostasis.

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Chap 01_5ce 56. Which of these factors is NOT under homeostatic regulation? a. sweat rate b. body temperature c. levels of waste products in the body d. levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood 57. What type of fluid is specifically refers to the fluid that is between neighbouring cells? a. intracellular b. interstitial c. extracellular d. plasma 58. Which of the following is an example of a positive-feedback system? a. regulation of body temperature b. birth of a baby c. regulation of room temperature d. regulation of blood pH 59. What are the secretions of endocrine glands called? a. paracrines b. autocrines c. lumens d. hormones 60. Childbirth occurs under which feedback control system? a. negative feedback b. positive feedback c. extrinsic control d. feedforward 61. What are the three actions that the body’s control system must perform in order to maintain homeostasis? a. control the external environment, record information, make appropriate adjustments b. control the internal environment, record information, detect deviation c. detect information, integrate internal environment, control changes d. detect deviations, integrate information, make appropriate adjustments 62. Which of these statements describes endocrine glands? a. They consist of ducts. b. They secrete hormones internally into the blood capillaries. c. They are derived from connective tissue. d. They include the salivary glands. 63. Epithelial tissue is organized into which of the two general types of structures? a. epithelial sheets and secretory glands b. cells and cell walls c. ducts and nuclei d. protective and absorptive 64. Which of these statements describes negative feedback? a. A change in a regulated variable triggers a response by the effector that opposes the change. b. The input to a system increases the output, and the output limits its own production by inhibiting the input. c. A control system’s input and output continue to enhance each other in order to maintain homeostasis. d. It is the main operating principle of most of the body’s homeostatic control mechanisms.

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Chap 01_5ce 65. What are the two systems concerned with the control of body functioning by extrinsic controls? a. nervous and respiratory b. nervous and endocrine c. endocrine and respiratory d. endocrine and lymphatic 66. If someone asks the question, “Why does the stomach secrete digestive juices?” and the response is “Because it is stimulated by the nervous system,” what type of explanation does the response represent? a. teleological b. phenomenological c. mechanistic d. anatomical 67. Which of these statements most accurately reflects the study of physiology? a. Stroke volume and heart rate determine cardiac output, which is a measure of the function of the heart. b. The brain is located superior to the spinal cord. c. The major organ of the respiratory system is the lung. d. The digestive tract includes the mouth, esophagus, stomach, and intestines. Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 68. ____________________ refers to maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment. 69. The two major control systems of the body are the ____________________ and the ____________________. 70. Cell ____________________ is the process in which cells mature and become more specialized. 71. ____________________ are composed of two or more types of primary tissue organized to perform a particular function or functions. 72. The internal environment consists of the ____________________, which is made up of ____________________, the fluid portion of the blood, and ____________________, which surrounds and bathes all cells. 73. The ____________________ system controls and coordinates bodily activities that require swift responses, especially to changes in the external environment. 74. The term ____________________ refers to the abnormal functioning of the body associated with disease. 75. The ____________________ surrounds each cell and keeps its internal contents separate from contents that are external to it. 76. ____________________ are the blood vessels in which materials are mixed between the blood plasma and the interstitial fluid. 77. The ____________________ is the liquid part of the blood. 78. The ____________________ system eliminates waste products other than carbon dioxide, and plays a key role in regulating the volume, electrolyte composition, and acidity of the extracellular fluid. 79. When processes within the body are explained in terms of cause-and-effect sequences, this is a ____________________ viewpoint of physiology. 80. The ____________________ system houses the tissue where the synthesis of all blood cells takes place. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5ce 81. In a negative-feedback loop, the ____________________ monitors any deviations in the levels of a controlled variable. 82. ____________________ are individual living entities, examples of which are humans and bacteria. 83. In a negative-feedback loop, the ____________________ compares the current level of the controlled variable to its set-point level. 84. The ____________________ system is the transport system of the body. 85. The fluid that immediately surrounds each cell within a tissue is the ____________________ fluid. 86. A ____________________ is a collection of organs that perform related functions and interact to accomplish a common activity that is essential for survival of the whole body. 87. The smallest unit capable of carrying out the processes associated with life is the ____________________. 88. ____________________ glands secrete through ducts in the skin. CUSTOM ID: 01-92 89. increased blood flow into muscle tissue in response to a localized increase in carbon dioxide 90. the release of a hormone to lower blood calcium level when it gets too high 91. increased cardiac activity to elevate blood pressure when systemic pressure is low 92. rapid clotting of blood due to increasing levels of platelet activity at a site of vessel damage Match the terms, labelled a. through d., with their correct descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. nervous tissue b. epithelial tissue c. muscle tissue d. connective tissue REF: 1.2 Levels of Organization in the Body CUSTOM ID: 01-90 93. This tissue type is composed of cells specialized for contraction. 94. This tissue type is made up of cells specialized in the exchange of materials between the cell and its environment. 95. This tissue type connects, supports, and anchors various body parts. 96. The heart is made of this type of tissue. 97. Bone is this tissue type. 98. Glands are a derivative of this tissue type. 99. The digestive tract is lined with this tissue. 100. The brain is made primarily of this tissue. 101. The blood is this tissue type. 102. This tissue is distinguished by relatively few cells within an extracellular material.

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Chap 01_5ce CUSTOM ID: 01-91 103. body temperature 104. temperature-sensitive nerve cells 105. skeletal muscles and sweat glands 106. hypothalamus 107. Explain how the components of a negative-feedback system work to restore deviations in a controlled variable back to set point.

108. List and describe the levels of organization within the body.

109. Compare and contrast regulation by negative-feedback, positive-feedback, and feedforward mechanisms.

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Chap 01_5ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. True 17. False 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. False 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. False 26. True

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Chap 01_5ce 27. False 28. False 29. False 30. True 31. False 32. True 33. d 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. d 49. b 50. a 51. c 52. d 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5ce 55. c 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. d 60. b 61. d 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. Homeostasis 69. nervous system; endocrine system endocrine system; nervous system 70. differentiation 71. Organs 72. extracellular fluid; plasma; interstitial fluid 73. nervous 74. pathophysiology 75. plasma membrane 76. Capillaries 77. plasma 78. urinary 79. mechanistic 80. skeletal 81. sensor 82. Organisms Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5ce 83. integrator 84. circulatory 85. interstitial fluid 86. body system 87. cell 88. Exocrine 89. a 90. b 91. b 92. c 93. c 94. b 95. d 96. c 97. d 98. b 99. b 100. a 101. d 102. d 103. a 104. c 105. d 106. b 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary.

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Chap 02_5ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The plasma membrane is an impermeable barrier to substances that are poorly soluble in water. a. True b. False 2. Synthesis, modification, and packaging of newly formed proteins is performed by the endoplasmic reticulum. a. True b. False 3. The electron carrier molecules of the electron transport chain are located in the outer mitochondrial matrix. a. True b. False 4. Gap junctions play an important role in transmission of impulses for heart contraction. a. True b. False 5. In secondary active transport, energy is required directly by the carrier to move a substance uphill against a concentration gradient. a. True b. False 6. Mitochondria contain the enzymes for both the TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. a. True b. False 7. Intermediary metabolic enzymes are found in the cytosol. a. True b. False 8. Cholesterol imparts fluidity to the plasma membrane by preventing fatty acid tails in phospholipids from packing tightly together. a. True b. False 9. Carrier proteins allow for movement of water soluble ions across the plasma membrane. a. True b. False 10. The hydrophilic interior of the lipid bilayer provides a barrier to the passage of water-soluble molecules. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 11. If a particle is lipid soluble and can permeate the plasma membrane, no force is required for it to move across the membrane. a. True b. False 12. Osmosis is the diffusion of water down its own concentration gradient. a. True b. False 13. Extracellular messengers can effect changes in target cells by opening ion channels or activating intracellular signalling pathways. a. True b. False 14. Energy stored in the chemical bonds in food can be used directly for energy production. a. True b. False 15. Water-soluble ions would not be able to passively move through the plasma membrane without channel proteins. a. True b. False 16. Fibronectin is a rubber-like protein important for stretch. a. True b. False 17. Specificity of carrier-mediated transport involves a maximum number of binding sites on a carrier. a. True b. False 18. Phosphate released from hydrolysis of creatine phosphate is used indirectly to synthesize ATP. a. True b. False 19. To be metabolized, pyruvate must be transported from the mitochondrial matrix to the cytosol. a. True b. False 20. Activity of the Na+–K+ pump helps regulate cell volume. a. True b. False 21. Anaerobic metabolism of glucose produces lactic acid and more ATP than aerobic metabolism of glucose. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 22. Pinocytosis refers to the process of a cell engulfing a large, multimolecular particle and bringing the particle into the contents of the cell. a. True b. False 23. Microfilaments are composed of tubulin molecules, and aid in contraction of cells. a. True b. False 24. Desmosome plaques are located on the intracellular surface of cells. a. True b. False 25. The presence of tight junctions in epithelial sheets requires substances to move between cells. a. True b. False 26. One extracellular messenger molecule can ultimately influence the activity of only one protein molecule within the cell. a. True b. False 27. Tight junctions ensure selective transport of substances through the cells of epithelial sheets. a. True b. False 28. In active transport, ATP energy is used in the phosphorylation–dephosphorylation cycle of the carrier. a. True b. False 29. Oxidative phosphorylation refers to the use of oxygen to pump H+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane. a. True b. False 30. Intermediate filaments are hollow, tube-like structures that provide stability against mechanical stress. a. True b. False 31. Enzymes of the TCA cycle are located in the cytosol of the cell. a. True b. False 32. In kidney cells, the Na+–K+ pump directly provides the energy for glucose transport. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 33. Phosphorylation of a carrier can alter the affinity of its binding sites, accompanied by a change in its conformation. a. True b. False 34. The two features of a substance that determine its permeability are its size and its solubility in lipid. a. True b. False 35. Carbohydrates on the surface of the plasma membrane assist in appropriate cell growth. a. True b. False 36. Secretory vesicles require membrane proteins in order to release their contents to the extracellular fluid. a. True b. False 37. Creatine phosphate provides the phosphate molecule required for substrate level phosphorylation. a. True b. False 38. The plasma membrane is considered impermeable because it allows only certain substance to cross through it. a. True b. False 39. Vaults are cellular organelles with a role in transport. a. True b. False 40. Osmosis is the major force that moves water in and out of cells. a. True b. False 41. Secretory vesicles travel along microfilaments to move from one location to another. a. True b. False 42. Signal transduction is a way for cells to send signals to their extracellular environment. a. True b. False 43. Most cells in the body can perform phagocytosis. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 44. Anabolic and catabolic processes occur simultaneously within cells. a. True b. False 45. The direct product of glycolysis is two molecules of acetyl CoA. a. True b. False 46. If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the cell will swell. a. True b. False 47. The cytosol contains the cell’s genetic material. a. True b. False 48. Cadherins link the outer surface of a cell to its external environment, and the inner membrane surface to the cytoskeleton. a. True b. False 49. The extracellular matrix includes a watery gel made of carbohydrates. a. True b. False 50. A concentration gradient is also known as an electrical gradient. a. True b. False 51. Connexons make up the structure of gap junctions. a. True b. False 52. Carbohydrates on the surface of the plasma membrane can be either glycolipids or glycoproteins. a. True b. False 53. Pyruvate decarboxylation generates energy indirectly through production of NADH. a. True b. False 54. In a working muscle cell, the decrease in creatine phosphate levels is greater than the decrease in ATP levels. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 55. Osmosis does not occur if the concentration gradients for water and solutes are absent in a system. a. True b. False 56. Cell detoxification takes place in lysosomes. a. True b. False 57. Production of ATP through chemiosmosis would not happen without the buildup of H+ in the intermembrane space. a. True b. False 58. The endoplasmic reticulum packages and distributes new proteins. a. True b. False 59. The tonicity of extracellular fluid is determined by the concentration of penetrating solutes. a. True b. False 60. In order for a second messenger to be activated, a first messenger needs to bind to a cell surface receptor. a. True b. False 61. Hydrostatic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by water. a. True b. False 62. Second messenger signalling pathways are very different, depending on the cell type. a. True b. False 63. Glycolysis yields an amount of energy that is insufficient to supply all cellular energy needs. a. True b. False 64. Gap junctions are abundant in tissues’ epithelial sheets. a. True b. False 65. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the cell will swell. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 66. Anaerobic metabolism of glucose produces lactic acid. a. True b. False 67. Ribosomes are composed of both RNA and proteins. a. True b. False 68. In carrier-mediated transport, the carriers for glucose can also act as carriers for amino acids. a. True b. False 69. The energy stored in the terminal phosphate bond of ATP is the immediate energy source for cells. a. True b. False 70. As temperature decreases, the rate of diffusion will increase. a. True b. False 71. When equilibrium is achieved and no net diffusion is taking place, there is no movement of molecules. a. True b. False 72. The surface carbohydrates within the plasma membrane serve as cell adhesion molecules (CAMs), which cells use to grip one another and surrounding connective tissue fibres. a. True b. False 73. Particles with low lipid solubility that are too large for channels cannot cross the plasma membrane without assistance. a. True b. False 74. Inclusions, such as fat droplets, store excess nutrients in the cell. a. True b. False 75. Cell adhesion molecules participate in cellular signalling. a. True b. False 76. Pyruvate decarboxylation occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5ce 77. Signal transduction is a method for water-soluble messengers to effect change on the interior of a cell. a. True b. False 78. The TCA cycle produces CO2, which leaves the cell and enters the bloodstream. a. True b. False 79. The only means by which an extracellular chemical messenger can bring about a desired intracellular response is to activate a second messenger system. a. True b. False 80. Skin is an example of tissue where there would be an abundance of desmosomes. a. True b. False 81. Endocytosis can be accomplished by phagocytosis and pinocytosis. a. True b. False 82. Cell behaviour of most cells will change if they are not in contact with the extracellular matrix. a. True b. False 83. Tight junctions are also known as adhering junctions. a. True b. False 84. Light microscopes are 1000 times more powerful than electron microscopes. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 85. Which of the following does NOT refer to cell adhesion molecules? a. They can participate in cell signalling. b. They include cadherins and integrins. c. They form loops and hooks that the cell uses to hold organelles in place. d. They are structural links that anchor the cell to extracellular and intracellular scaffolding. 86. Which of these cellular organelles is the site for protein synthesis? a. ribosome b. Golgi complex c. endoplasmic reticulum d. nucleus

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Chap 02_5ce 87. Which of these plasma membrane components directly enhances membrane fluidity? a. cholesterol b. glycolipids c. carrier proteins d. channel proteins 88. Carriers performing active transport are also known as what? a. pumps b. channels c. docking proteins d. binding proteins 89. Which of the following refers to membrane transport? a. Lipid soluble particles must be transported by assisted transport. b. Water soluble ions can permeate the plasma membrane unassisted if they are small enough. c. Non-polar molecules, such as O2 and CO2, need to be actively transported across the plasma membrane. d. Specific ion channels need to be present and open for certain ions to pass through the membrane. 90. Which of the following is an accurate description of active transport? a. It uses ATP to pump substances down their concentration gradient. b. Active transport carriers have ATP synthase activity. c. Dephosphorylation of a carrier increases the binding affinity for a substance. d. Carriers have a higher binding affinity for a substance of lower concentration when it is phosphorylated. 91. Why does anaerobic respiration take place when O2 is unavailable? a. to continue ATP production c. to make use of available glucose

b. to prevent cell death d. to prevent protein breakdown

92. Which of these statements describes NADH and FADH2? a. They are energy carriers. c. They are used in glycolysis.

b. They play a role in cellular respiration. d. They are used in the citric acid cycle.

93. Which of the following use(s) receptor-mediated endocytosis to be internalized by a cell? a. glucose b. amino acids c. vitamin B12 d. bacteria 94. Which of these statements describes ATP synthase? a. It is present in the outer mitochondrial membrane. b. It is activated by the flow of H+ from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space. c. It synthesizes ADP from ATP. d. It is an anabolic enzyme 95. What does the SNARE complex provide? a. recognition of foreign proteins in the cell b. binding of correct enzyme with correct substrate c. means to deliver vesicles to an appropriate site d. receptor-mediated endocytosis

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Chap 02_5ce 96. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe vesicular transport? a. Pinocytosis is a form of endocytosis. b. The contents of endocytic vesicles are released into the ECF if the vesicle fuses with a lysosome. c. In some cells, endocytic vesicles release their contents via exocytosis. d. The endocytic vesicle is formed from a portion of the plasma membrane. 97. Phagocytosis is used commonly by which type of cell? a. liver cells b. muscle cells c. white blood cells d. intestinal cells 98. Which of the following decreases the rate of diffusion of a substance through the plasma membrane? a. increasing the concentration gradient b. increasing the molecular size of the substance c. increasing the permeability of the membrane d. increasing the surface area of the membrane 99. What is the purpose of pyruvate decarboxylation? a. to produce ATP directly b. to produce creatine phosphate c. to produce FADH2 d. to produce acetyl CoA 100. Which of the following is the definition of anaerobic? a. with oxygen b. with carbon dioxide c. without oxygen d. without carbon dioxide 101. Where are the enzymes for glycolysis located? a. in the mitochondrial matrix b. in the endoplasmic reticulum c. in the inner mitochondrial membrane d. in the cytosol 102. Which of these statements refers to desmosomes? a. Plaques on the outer surface of two adjacent cells are attached to intracellular keratin filaments. b. They are composed of cytoplasmic plaques and glycoprotein filaments. c. They are composed of connexon units. d. Intercellular keratin filaments hold the nuclei of neighbouring cells together. 103. Which of the following proteins of the extracellular matrix holds cells in place? a. collagen b. fibronectin c. elastin d. cadherin 104. Which organelles contain hydrolytic enzymes? a. peroxisomes b. lysosomes c. vaults d. mitochondria

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Chap 02_5ce 105. When a muscle cell first starts contracting, what happens to the levels of creatine phosphate and ATP? a. Creatine phosphate levels increase rapidly and ATP levels decrease rapidly. b. Creatine phosphate levels decrease rapidly and ATP levels increase rapidly. c. Creatine phosphate levels and ATP levels decrease rapidly. d. Creatine phosphate levels and ATP levels increase rapidly. 106. Which of the following pathways of energy production releases CO2? a. glycolysis c. pyruvate decarboxylation

b. electron transport chain d. chemiosmosis

107. Which of these statements describes electron transport chains? a. They are “circuits” for small amounts of electricity to pass through. b. They are made of proteins. c. They deliver energy to cytochrome to pump H+ into the intermembrane space. d. They do not need oxygen to be available. 108. Which of these substances is most likely to diffuse passively across the plasma membrane by dissolving in the membrane? a. a cation b. an anion c. a nonpolar or nonionized molecule d. a polar molecule 109. What is the function of the extracellular matrix? a. to allow movement of cells from one location to another b. to allow endocytosis and exocytosis to occur c. to regulate enzyme activity within cells d. to hold the cells that make up a tissue together 110. Which of these plasma membrane components prevents the fatty acids in phospholipids from packing together? a. carbohydrates b. cholesterol c. phospholipids d. receptor proteins 111. Which of the following statements refers to the Na+–K+ pump? a. When open to the ECF, it has three high-affinity binding sites for Na+ and two low-affinity binding sites for K+. b. Phosphorylation causes it to change conformation and open to the ICF. c. When open to the ICF, it has three high-affinity binding sites for Na+ and two low-affinity binding sites for K+. d. It has three binding sites for K+ and two binding sites for Na+.

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Chap 02_5ce 112. What would happen if second messengers did not exist? a. First messengers would not be produced. b. Messages that rely on opening of chemically gated ion channels could not be sent. c. Some extracellular messengers could not exert effects on target cells. d. Glycolysis could not occur. 113. A concentration gradient refers to which of the following? a. substances spreading out evenly because of their movement in a solution b. movement of the same substance across a membrane c. different numbers of the same substance on opposite sides of a membrane d. opposing movement of substances across a membrane 114. Insulin promotes the uptake of glucose into cells by which of these transport mechanisms? a. carrier-mediated transport b. endocytosis c. exocytosis d. osmosis 115. Which of these components is always present in most human cells? a. flagella b. cell wall c. cilia d. plasma membrane 116. If cells were missing the endoplasmic reticulum, which of the following cellular functions would be affected? a. detoxification b. duplicating DNA c. synthesizing new cell membrane components d. synthesizing new proteins 117. What is the primary determinant of a membrane’s selective permeability? a. the structures of the membrane phospholipids b. the amount of cholesterol present c. the number and types of membrane proteins d. the charge of the membrane 118. Which of these statements applies to the citric acid cycle? a. It occurs in the mitochondrial cristae. b. Starting with citrate, 1 carbon molecule is removed with each step. c. H+ are removed and transferred to hydrogen carriers. d. Acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate react to form citrate. 119. At the end of glycolysis, how many molecules of pyruvic acid are generated? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

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Chap 02_5ce 120. Which of these mechanisms is used by large polar molecules when they leave or enter the cell? a. vesicular transport b. osmosis c. selective passive transport d. channels 121. Which of the following is a characteristic of elastin? a. It imparts strength to tissues. b. It provides tissues the ability to stretch and then recoil. c. It aids in communication between cells. d. It anchors cells in place within a tissue. 122. What would be a potential consequence if cells did NOT have integrins? a. Cell transport would be affected negatively. b. Small ions would not be able to permeate the plasma membrane. c. Secretory vesicles could not empty their contents to the extracellular surroundings. d. Cells could not form links with their extracellular surroundings. 123. What is the name of the site where the lateral (side) edges of adjacent cells in an epithelial sheet are joined together? a. connexon b. plaque c. tight site d. kiss site 124. Which cell type in connective tissue secretes components of the extracellular matrix? a. epithelial cells b. myoblasts c. fibroblasts d. cardiac muscle cells 125. The term “net diffusion” refers to which of the following? a. the sum of opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas b. the fraction of opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas c. the total of opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas d. the difference in opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas 126. Which of these is a characteristic of the Golgi complex? a. It receives newly synthesized proteins and modifies them. b. It is partially studded with ribosomes. c. It contains the enzymes for the TCA cycle. d. It contains hydrolytic enzymes. 127. Which of the following proteins imparts tensile strength to the extracellular matrix? a. fibronectin b. elastin c. collagen d. keratin

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Chap 02_5ce 128. The chemiosmotic mechanism involves which of the following? a. ATP synthesis using a H+ concentration gradient b. ATP synthesis using creatine kinase c. ATP synthesis from anaerobic metabolism d. NADH synthesis using a H+ gradient 129. Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins? a. to act as carriers for substances to cross the membrane b. to act as receptor sites for binding of extracellular substances c. to impart membrane fluidity d. to serve as enzymes 130. Which of these is present on the plasma membrane and allows a secretory vesicle to dock? a. sorting signal b. coat protein c. v-SNARE d. t-SNARE 131. What is the underlying cause of cystic fibrosis? a. the buildup of thick mucus in respiratory airways and the pancreas b. a genetic defect that affects membrane sodium transport c. a genetic defect that affects membrane chloride transport d. a genetic defect that affects membrane potassium transport 132. Which of the following statements is an accurate description of assisted membrane transport? a. Carrier-mediated transport moves small water-soluble molecules across the membrane. b. Carrier-mediated transport moves large macromolecules across the membrane. c. Vesicular transport moves glucose across the membrane. d. Cells can use vesicular transport strictly to move molecules from the ECF to the ICF. 133. Which of these statements does NOT apply to endocytosis? a. provides a way to add specific components to the plasma membrane b. phagocytosis of large multimolecular particles such as bacteria or cellular debris c. a particle gaining entry to the interior of the cell without actually passing through the plasma membrane d. can be triggered by the binding of a particle to a receptor site on the plasma membrane 134. Resisting mechanical stress is the function of which cell structure? a. lysosome b. vault c. microtubule d. intermediate filament 135. Which of these statements does NOT refer to intermediary metabolism? a. It is the set of reactions that make energy to support cellular activities. b. Most of it occurs in plasma membrane. c. It uses simple sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids to make energy. d. The cytoplasm contains most of the enzymes that it requires. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 136. If 20 molecules of X move from Area A to Area B, and 10 molecules of X move from Area B to Area A, what is the net diffusion of molecule X? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 137. What happens when a membrane separates a solution of nonpenetrating solute from pure water? a. Water will move until hydrostatic pressure is equal to osmotic pressure. b. Osmotic pressure will always be higher than hydrostatic pressure and water will continually move. c. Hydrostatic pressure will always be higher than osmotic pressure and water will continually move. d. Water will move until the concentration of the solution on both sides of the membrane is the same. 138. The plasma membrane would not be compatible with the extracellular and intracellular fluid without the presence of which of its components? a. fatty acids of the phospholipids b. phosphate groups of the phospholipids c. integral membrane proteins d. cholesterol 139. Which of these descriptions applies to the movement of molecules across the plasma membrane? a. If two similar molecules can both combine with the same carrier, the presence of one of these molecules increases the rate of entry of the other. b. In simple diffusion, the rate of transport is inversely proportional to the molecule’s concentration. c. When a carrier becomes saturated, the maximum rate of transport is reached. d. Large molecules can cross it via nonselective, receptor-mediated endocytosis. 140. Which of the following applies to facilitated diffusion? a. A carrier transports a substance against its concentration gradient by expending energy. b. A carrier transports a substance down its concentration gradient by expending energy. c. A carrier transports a substance down its concentration gradient without expending energy. d. A carrier transports a substance against its concentration gradient without expending energy. 141. Which of the following statements applies to assisted membrane transport? a. If a carrier can transport more than one substance, the rate of transport for those substances is not affected when both of those substances are present. b. When transport maximum is reached, 90 percent the carrier binding sites for a substance are occupied. c. Before transport maximum is reached, the rate of transport for a substance is determined by its concentration. d. Carrier proteins can only transport a single compound. 142. Gap junctions are also considered what type of cell-to-cell junction? a. adhering b. communicating c. sealing d. impermeable

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Chap 02_5ce 143. Which of these statements does NOT apply to ribosomes? a. They are composed of RNA. b. They assemble proteins. c. They may be bound to endoplasmic reticulum. d. They are covered by a membrane. 144. Which of these statements describes cadherins? a. They create a filamentous meshwork in the inner surface of the membrane. b. They act as membrane-bound enzymes. c. They are used for cell recognition purposes. d. They provide a mechanical link between the cells in a tissue. 145. If oxidation is uncoupled from phosphorylation, what would happen to the rate of ATP synthesis? a. It would increase. b. It would decrease. c. It would increase initially, then decrease. d. It would not change. 146. Which of these statements describes carrier-mediated transport? a. It always involves a specific membrane protein that serves as a carrier molecule. b. It always transports substances against a concentration gradient. c. It always requires energy expenditure. d. It always transports substances along a concentration gradient. 147. Which of these compounds is the metabolic product that enters the TCA cycle? a. citrate b. pyruvic acid c. acetyl CoA d. FADH2 148. Which of the following is a form of vesicular transport? a. carrier-mediated transport b. protein-mediated transport c. pinocytosis

d. Na+–K+ pump

149. Structurally similar compounds being transported by the same carrier refers to which aspect of carrier-mediated transport? a. specificity b. competition c. saturation d. maximum transport 150. Which of the following is NOT relevant to vesicular transport? a. carrier-mediated transport b. use of ATP c. pinocytosis d. pseudopods 151. Which of the following does diffusion result from? a. ATP-driven processes b. ion gradients c. inherent kinetic energy of matter d. selective permeability

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Chap 02_5ce 152. If the phospholipids in the plasma membrane flipped their orientation, which direction would the fatty acid tails be facing? a. toward the intracellular fluid b. toward the extracellular fluid c. toward the intracellular and extracellular fluid d. toward the interior of the plasma membrane 153. Which of these statements refers to substrate-level phosphorylation? a. It is an important source of ATP for liver cells. b. It requires the enzyme creatine phosphorylase. c. It generates a large amount of ATP for every molecule of creatine phosphate. d. It is a fast method of generating ATP. 154. What happens to the rate of oxidative phosphorylation if oxygen availability in cells is low? a. It increases. b. It decreases. c. It stays the same. d. It decreases initially and then increases if oxygen stays low. 155. Which of the following explains the variability in the number of ATP molecules produced from glucose? a. The TCA cycle produces variable amounts of ATP. b. ATP synthase may use ATP at times. c. Glycolysis is not always 100 percent efficient. d. Some transporters use ATP to move NADH into the mitochondria. 156. Chemical messengers secreted by cells that act locally are known as what? a. paracrines b. autocrines c. hormones d. neurohormones 157. Which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma membrane? a. to provide a physical barrier to hold in the contents of the cell b. to aid in maintaining different ionic concentrations outside versus inside the cell c. to allow the cell to store excess cholesterol d. to help cells respond to changes in their immediate environment 158. Ribosomes may be found attached to which other cellular organelle? a. nucleus b. mitochondrion c. Golgi complex d. endoplasmic reticulum 159. For every two potassium ions that the sodium–potassium pump moves into the cell, how many sodium ions does it move out of the cell? a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1

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Chap 02_5ce 160. What will happen when a membrane separates unequal solutions of a nonpenetrating solute? a. The solute will move down its concentration gradient. b. The volume of solution on the side of the membrane with lower concentration will increase. c. The volume of solution on the side of the membrane with the higher concentration will increase. d. The volume of solution of the side of the membrane with the higher concentration will decrease. 161. The Na+–K+ pump is important for all of the following EXCEPT which one? a. maintaining appropriate cell volumes b. exocytosis of secretory vesicles c. secondary active transport d. nerve and muscle cell excitability 162. Area A and Area B contain a solution of molecule X. Area A has a higher number of molecule X than Area B. Which of the following will result? a. Molecule X will move from Area B to Area A until molecule X reaches steady state. b. Molecule X will move from Area A to Area B until molecule X reaches steady state. c. Molecule X will move from Area A to Area B until the number of molecules X in Area B is greater than in Area A. d. Molecule X will move from Area B to Area A until the number of molecules X in Area A is greater than in Area B. 163. Which these statements is an accurate description of metabolism? a. Catabolic and anabolic reactions are happening simultaneously in cells. b. Catabolic reactions are synthesis reactions. c. Anabolic reactions favour the breakdown of molecules. d. Catabolic reactions require ATP to occur. 164. What component of the plasma membrane is responsible for its ability to keep intracellular fluid separate from extracellular fluid? a. cholesterol b. carrier proteins c. phospholipids d. glycolipids 165. With secondary active transport, the movement of a. Na+ into the cell by the cotransport carrier is downhill. b. Na+ into the cell by the cotransport carrier is uphill. c. glucose by the cotransport carrier is uphill. d. Cl– into the cell by the cotransport carrier is downhill. 166. Some viruses gain access to cells by using which of these processes? a. pinocytosis b. receptor-mediated endocytosis c. exocytosis d. active transport 167. The tendency of water to move into a solution due to its concentration of nonpenetrating solutes is known as what? a. diffusion pressure b. fluid pressure c. hydrostatic pressure d. osmotic pressure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 168. Which of these components in the plasma membrane provides a method of self-recognition for cells? a. carbohydrates b. cholesterol c. phospholipids d. receptor proteins 169. Which of the following statements refers to neurohormones? a. They are secreted into the bloodstream by endocrine cells. b. They travel long distances to reach target cells. c. They are secreted by neurons to influence neighbouring neurons. d. They travel short distances to reach target cells. 170. Which of the following statements describes net diffusion? a. It is the difference in opposing movements of different molecules between two areas. b. It is the total of opposing movements of different molecules between two areas. c. It is the total of opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas. d. It is the difference in opposing movements of the same molecule between two areas. 171. What causes diffusion of substances? a. electrical attraction between molecules in an area where they are densely packed and an area where they are sparse b. electrical attraction between the solvent and solutes in a solution c. random collisions between molecules in an area where they are densely packed d. energy-dependent pumping of a substance in an area where it is densely packed 172. If cellular levels of oxaloacetate are low, which energy-producing pathway is affected? a. glycolysis b. pyruvate decarboxylation c. citric acid cycle d. substrate level phosphorylation 173. What accounts for the most ATP production? a. citric acid cycle b. glycolysis c. substrate-level phosphorylation d. oxidative phosphorylation 174. Which of these statements describes tight junctions? a. They provide cell-to-cell adhesion in epithelial sheets. b. They provide cell-to-cell adhesion in tissues that undergo significant mechanical stretch. c. They provide cell-to-cell adhesion in tissues requiring rapid transfer of substances between cells. d. They provide cell-to-cell adhesion in muscle cells. 175. Which of the following is NOT an activity of the cytosol? a. duplication of chromosomes b. enzymatic regulation of intermediary metabolism c. storage of fat and glycogen d. synthesis of proteins for use in the cytosol

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Chap 02_5ce 176. What is the pressure exerted by a stationary fluid? a. hydrostatic pressure b. osmotic pressure c. hydro-osmotic pressure d. solution pressure 177. What is the major role of peroxisomes? a. oxidation b. detoxification c. protein synthesis d. cellular digestion 178. Forces that do not need energy to transport substances across the plasma membrane are known as what? a. active forces b. passive forces c. permeating forces d. transport forces 179. Which of these organelles is NOT membrane bound? a. lysosome b. ribosome c. mitochondrion d. peroxisome 180. The fluid mosaic model refers to which characteristic of the plasma membrane? a. its ability to regulate fluid movement through carrier proteins b. the ability of the numerous membrane proteins to move around in the phospholipid bilayer c. the presence of glycoproteins and glycolipids d. the multiple components of which it is composed 181. The term transport maximum refers to which aspect of carrier-mediated transport systems? a. specificity b. saturation c. competition d. solubility 182. What will happen to a cell if the extracellular fluid is hypertonic? a. Water will move into the cell and the cell will shrivel. b. Water will move into the cell and the cell will swell. c. Water will move out of the cell and the cell will swell. d. Water will move out of the cell and the cell will shrivel. 183. Which of the following statements reflects a correct component of cell theory? a. Pre-existing cells are required for new cells to be created. b. Molecules are the smallest structural and functional unit that can perform life functions. c. Functional activities of a cell are unrelated to structural characteristics of that cell. d. The cells of all organisms are fundamentally different in structure and function. 184. Which structure, formed by membrane proteins, spans the lipid bilayer and forms water-filled passages that allow small ions to move in and out of cells? a. transporter b. receptor c. carrier d. channel

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Chap 02_5ce Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement. 185. The watery gel of the ECM allows substances such as nutrients to move between cells via ____________________. 186. The set of intracellular chemical reactions that are vital for capturing energy for the cell is known as ____________________. 187. The hydrophobic portion of phospholipids is composed of ____________________. 188. Secretory vesicles depend on this type of membrane protein to release their contents: ____________________. 189. Surface markers made of ____________________ assist in appropriate cell growth. 190. Chemical messengers in the blood communicate with their target cells via ____________________ proteins. 191. ____________________ reactions are those that build materials for the cell. 192. ____________________ contain oxidative enzymes that detoxify the cell. 193. ____________________ metabolism occurs in the presence of O2. 194. The electron carrier molecules of the electron transport chain are located in the ____________________ of the mitochondria. 195. During pyruvate decarboxylation, carbon is removed and forms ____________________. 196. ____________________ are the structures that make up the tunnels that form gap junctions. 197. Vaults assist in ____________________ between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. 198. The three characteristics that determine the kind and amount of material that can be moved across a membrane by carrier-mediated transport are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. 199. The portions of the cytoskeleton that aid in transport of secretory vesicles within cells are ____________________. 200. The extracellular matrix is a mixture of fibrous proteins in a ____________________. 201. In addition to glucose, ATP can also be generated from ____________________ and ____________________. 202. ____________________ are local chemical messengers. 203. In the TCA cycle, ____________________ joins with acetyl CoA to form citrate. 204. In substrate level phosphorylation, Pi is generated from ____________________. 205. The protein that provides stretch and recoil to the ECM of lung tissue is ____________________. 206. Foreign material to be attacked by lysosomal enzymes is brought into the cell by the process of ____________________. 207. ____________________ are long-distance chemical messengers. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 208. Ribosomes may be found free in the cytosol or bound to the ____________________. 209. The Golgi complex modifies, packages, and distributes newly synthesized ____________________. 210. The Na+–K+ pump indirectly provides the energy for transport of ____________________ in intestinal cells. 211. The carbon-based product of glycolysis is ____________________. 212. Desmosomes are also known as ____________________ junctions. 213. ____________________ refers to the process of an intracellular vesicle fusing with the plasma membrane, then opening and emptying its contents to the exterior. 214. In active transport, a substance moves from an area of ____________________ concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration. 215. ____________________ is a protein responsible for pinching off an endocytic vesicle. 216. Pyruvate decarboxylation yields ____________________, which moves directly into the TCA cycle. 217. The major structural component of flagella and cilia are ____________________. 218. The fluid mosaic model refers to the movement of ____________________ within the fluid phospholipids of the plasma membrane. 219. Neurohormones are released into the bloodstream by ____________________. 220. The ____________________ refers to the maximum amount of a substance that can be transported across the plasma membrane via a carrier in a given time. 221. Lysosomes contain ____________________ enzymes that are capable of digesting and removing unwanted debris from the cell. 222. Helical chains of actin molecules that aid in cell contractile responses are called ____________________. 223. Water soluble ions can move through the plasma membrane via proteins that act as ____________________. 224. Cadherins and integrins are types of ____________________. 225. The structure within a desmosome to which intracellular keratin filaments are attached is called ____________________. 226. ____________________ are the folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane that project into the matrix. 227. In addition to ATP and CO2, the TCA cycle also produces ____________________ and ____________________, which are used for energy production. 228. In facilitated diffusion, particles move from a ____________________ concentration to a ____________________ concentration. 229. If red blood cells are placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water enters, causing them to swell. 230. ____________________ diffusion allows materials to pass through the membrane by a carrier protein, without the expenditure of energy. 231. Breakdown of glucose via glycolysis yields ______ molecules of ATP and ______ molecules of NADH. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 232. If red blood cells are placed in a(n) ____________________ solution, water leaves the cells, causing them to shrink. 233. Gap junctions are also known as ____________________ junctions. 234. ____________________ is activated by H+ moving down its concentration gradient. 235. The name of the enzyme that catalyzes substrate level phosphorylation is ____________________. 236. Endocytosis and exocytosis are both kinds of ____________________ transport. 237. A/an ____________________ solution has the same osmolarity as normal body cells. 238. ____________________ reactions are those that degrade larger molecules into small ones. 239. In a(n) ____________________ transport, materials may be moved “uphill” and are concentrated in a cell. 240. Assisted membrane transport includes facilitated transport and ____________________ transport. 241. The ____________________ serves as the cell’s “bones and muscles.” 242. Lysosomes contain ____________________ enzymes that aid in digesting cellular debris and foreign material. PTS: 1 Matching Match the vesicles, labelled a. through c., with their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. endocytic vesicles b. receptor-mediated endocytic vesicles c. secretory vesicles 243. originate from the Golgi complex 244. bring nonspecific contents into the cell 245. contain cholesterol as cargo 246. contents emptied to the exterior by exocytosis 247. enclosed in a clathrin framework 248. fuse with lysosomes 249. used to internalize specific substances. 250. can be used to restock the plasma membrane

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Chap 02_5ce PTS: 1

Match the terms, labelled a. through c., with their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. glycolysis b. citric acid cycle c. oxidative phosphorylation 251. directly uses inspired oxygen 252. does not directly use inspired oxygen 253. takes place in the cytosol 254. takes place in the mitochondrial matrix 255. takes place on the inner mitochondrial membrane 256. low yield of ATP 257. high yield of ATP PTS: 1 Matching Match the terms, labelled a. through c., to their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. microtubules b. microfilaments c. intermediate filaments 258. the largest of the cytoskeletal elements 259. present in parts of the cell subject to mechanical stress 260. consist of actin 261. form the mitotic spindle 262. essential for creating and maintaining an asymmetrical cell shape 263. composed of tubulin 264. play a key role in muscle contraction

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Chap 02_5ce PTS: 1 Matching Match the terms, labelled a. through i., to their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. endoplasmic reticulum (ER) b. Golgi complex c. lysosome d. peroxisome e. mitochondrion f. vault g. ribosome h. microtubule i. microfilament 265. contains powerful oxidative enzymes important in detoxifying various wastes 266. an important component of cilia and flagella 267. one continuous extensive organelle consisting of a network of tubules and flattened filament 268. removes unwanted cellular debris and foreign material 269. the powerhouse of the cell 270. acts as a mechanical stiffener 271. synthesizes proteins for use in the cytosol 272. consists of stacks of flattened sacs 273. shaped like an octagonal barrel

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Chap 02_5ce Match the terms, labelled a. through f., to their correct descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.) a. plasma membrane b. nucleus c. cytoplasm d. cytosol e. organelle f. cytoskeleton 274. houses the cell’s DNA 275. responsible for cell shape and movement 276. highly organized, membrane-bound, intracellular structure 277. selectively controls movement of molecules between the intracellular fluid and the extracellular fluid 278. consists of organelles and cytosol 279. site of intermediary metabolism 280. permits incompatible chemical reactions to occur simultaneously in the cell 281. separates contents of the cell from its surroundings 282. site of fat and glycogen storage 283. Explain how the Na+–K+ pump uses ATP and conformation changes to transport Na+ and K+ across the plasma membrane.

284. Outline how ATP is generated from a molecule of glucose that undergoes aerobic metabolism.

285. Describe how secondary active transport mechanisms are used to transport glucose in intestinal cells.

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Chap 02_5ce 286. Describe the different functions that are carried out by membrane proteins.

287. Describe what ATP is used for in the cell.

288. Explain the steps involved in generating ATP via electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.

289. Explain how secretory vesicles are packaged, docked to the plasma membrane, and their contents released.

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Chap 02_5ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. False 23. False 24. True 25. False 26. False

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Chap 02_5ce 27. True 28. True 29. False 30. False 31. False 32. False 33. True 34. True 35. True 36. True 37. True 38. False 39. True 40. True 41. False 42. False 43. False 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. False 48. False 49. True 50. False 51. True 52. False 53. True 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 55. True 56. False 57. True 58. False 59. False 60. True 61. False 62. False 63. True 64. False 65. False 66. True 67. True 68. False 69. True 70. False 71. False 72. False 73. True 74. True 75. True 76. True 77. True 78. True 79. False 80. True 81. True 82. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 83. False 84. False 85. c 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. d 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. c 94. d 95. c 96. b 97. c 98. b 99. d 100. c 101. d 102. b 103. b 104. b 105. b 106. c 107. c 108. c 109. d 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 111. c 112. c 113. c 114. a 115. d 116. c 117. c 118. c 119. b 120. a 121. b 122. d 123. d 124. c 125. d 126. a 127. c 128. a 129. c 130. d 131. c 132. a 133. a 134. d 135. b 136. b 137. a

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Chap 02_5ce 138. b 139. c 140. c 141. c 142. b 143. d 144. d 145. b 146. a 147. c 148. c 149. b 150. a 151. c 152. c 153. d 154. b 155. d 156. a 157. c 158. d 159. b 160. c 161. b 162. b 163. a 164. c 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 166. b 167. d 168. a 169. b 170. c 171. c 172. c 173. d 174. a 175. a 176. a 177. b 178. b 179. b 180. b 181. b 182. d 183. a 184. d 185. diffusion 186. intermediary metabolism 187. fatty acids 188. docking marker acceptors 189. carbohydrates 190. receptor 191. Anabolic 192. Peroxisomes 193. Aerobic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 194. inner mitochondrial membrane 195. carbon dioxide 196. Connexons 197. transport 198. competition; saturation; specificity (in any order) 199. microtubules 200. watery gel 201. amino acids; fatty acids fatty acids; amino acids 202. Paracrines 203. oxaloacetate 204. creatine phosphate/phosphocreatine 205. elastin 206. endocytosis 207. Hormones 208. endoplasmic reticulum 209. proteins 210. glucose 211. pyruvic acid 212. adhering junctions 213. Exocytosis 214. lower; higher 215. Dynamin 216. acetyl CoA 217. microtubules 218. proteins 219. neurosecretory neurons 220. transport maximum Tm 221. hydrolytic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 222. microfilaments 223. channels 224. cell adhesion molecules 225. plaque 226. Cristae 227. NADH; FADH2 FADH2; NADH 228. higher; lower 229. hypotonic 230. Facilitated 231. 2; 2 two; two 232. hypertonic 233. communicating 234. ATP synthase 235. creatine kinase 236. vesicular 237. isotonic 238. Catabolic 239. active 240. active 241. cytoskeleton 242. hydrolytic 243. c 244. a 245. b 246. c 247. b 248. a 249. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 250. c 251. c 252. a 253. a 254. b 255. c 256. a 257. c 258. a 259. c 260. b 261. a 262. a 263. a 264. b 265. d 266. h 267. a 268. c 269. e 270. i 271. g 272. b 273. f 274. b 275. f 276. e 277. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5ce 278. c 279. d 280. e 281. a 282. d 283. Answers will vary. 284. Answers will vary. 285. Answers will vary. 286. Answers will vary. 287. Answers will vary. 288. Answers will vary. 289. Answers will vary.

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Chap 03_5ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 1. Refer to the text. If presynaptic neurons X and Z are stimulated simultaneously, what change would be expected to occur in the postsynaptic neuron? a. a single EPSP b. a single IPSP c. temporal summation of EPSPs d. IPSP and EPSP would cancel each other out, so there would be essentially no change in potential in the postsynaptic neuron.

2. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to threshold potential? a. Its value is usually between –70 and –75 mV in most cells. b. When it is reached, a very large and rapid depolarization is triggered. c. It is reached when a triggering event of sufficient magnitude happens. d. Its value does not change during the course of an action potential. 3. Local changes in membrane potential that can vary in strength or magnitude are known as what? a. stimuli b. action potentials c. graded potentials d. triggering events 4. Which of the following in the positive feedback cycle of Na+ channel opening at threshold is the first to happen after the triggering event? a. depolarization b. a further decrease in membrane potential with additional influx of Na+ c. opening of some voltage-gated Na+ channels d. closing of some voltage-gated K+ channels 5. Which of the following statements correctly describes passive currents? a. The direction of current flow indicates the direction in which negative charges are moving. b. When a graded potential is triggered, passive currents are active in the ICF and ECF. c. When a graded potential is triggered, positive charges move from the ICF across the membrane to areas that are less positive. d. Passive currents carry long distance signals along the membrane.

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Chap 03_5ce 6. Which of the following is a characteristic of action potentials? a. During the depolarization phase, the outside of the cell becomes positively charged for a very brief period of time. b. They are long-distance signals because membrane potential is reversed for a long period of time. c. During the hyperpolarization phase, membrane potential moves farther away from the K+ equilibrium potential. d. At the peak of depolarization, membrane potential is lower than the Na+ equilibrium potential. 7. Which of these statements describes when spatial summation occurs in a postsynaptic neuron? a. when several EPSPs from a single presynaptic input sum to reach threshold b. when EPSPs from several presynaptic inputs sum to reach threshold c. upon simultaneous interaction of an EPSP and an IPSP d. when several IPSPs from a single presynaptic input sum to hyperpolarize the membrane 8. What does the term “absolute refractory period” refer to? a. the period where it is easier for a second action potential to be fired on a neuron b. the period where a stronger stimulus than usual produces a stronger action potential c. the period where a second action potential will be fired only if the stimulus is stronger than usual d. the period where a second action potential cannot be fired, no matter how strong the stimulus 9. Why can’t a second action potential be generated during the absolute refractory period? a. because the inactivation gates on some voltage-gated Na+ channels are still closed and voltage-gated K+ channels are slow to close b. because activation gates on voltage-gated Na+ channels are still open c. because the inactivation gates on some voltage-gated K+ channels are still closed d. because the activation gates on voltage-gated Na+ channels are open and voltage-gated K+ channels are slow to close 10. Which of these statements does NOT apply to the absolute refractory period? a. It refers to the period of time during which another action potential cannot be initiated in a patch of membrane that has just undergone an action potential, no matter how strong the stimulus. b. It corresponds to the time period during which the Na+ gates are first opened and then closed and inactivated. c. Immediately following it, the patch of nerve fibre membrane that has just undergone an action potential can be restimulated only by a stronger stimulus than is usually necessary. d. It occurs during the after hyperpolarization phase of the action potential.

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Chap 03_5ce 11. Which of these statements describes the equilibrium potential for K+? a. At K+ equilibrium, membrane potential would be +60 mV. b. It would happen if the inward concentration gradient and outward electrical gradients for K+ were equal. c. It would happen if K+ was the only ion moving across the plasma membrane. d. It would happen if the outward K+ concentration gradient was higher than the inward K+ electrical gradient. 12. What happens when a neurotransmitter binds to its receptor at an excitatory synapse? a. Cation channels specific for Na+ on the subsynaptic membrane open. b. Nonspecific cation channels on the subsynaptic membrane open. c. Cation channels specific for K+ on the subsynaptic membrane open. d. Nonspecific anion channels on the subsynaptic membrane open. 13. The binding of a neurotransmitter to inhibitory synapses increases the permeability of the subsynaptic membrane to which ions? a. sodium or chloride b. potassium or calcium c. potassium or chloride d. potassium or sodium 14. If a neuron’s absolute refractory period is increased, what happens to the speed at which the neuron can respond to repeated stimulation? a. increases b. decreases c. stays constant d. decreases initially, but increases once the neuron adapts 15. The strength of a stimulus is coded by what? a. the strength of action potentials b. the frequency of action potentials c. the duration of the resting period d. the duration of the refractory periods 16. Which of the following occurs with presynaptic inhibition in a specific neuron? a. An IPSP occurs on the postsynaptic cells. b. All excitatory information being fed into the cell is depressed. c. The release of excitatory transmitter from a specific presynaptic excitatory input is depressed. d. An EPSP occurs in the postsynaptic cells. 17. What is the term used to describe when a neuron terminates on either a muscle cell or a gland? a. end stimulus b. neurotransmit c. innervate d. supply 18. Which of the following is NOT a graded potential? a. end-plate potential b. action potential c. slow-wave potential d. receptor potential Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 19. Refer to the text. What permeability changes would be expected to occur at the postsynaptic neuron when presynaptic neuron X is stimulated? (Remember that the postsynaptic neuron becomes hyperpolarized by presynaptic neuron X.) a. increased PNa+ and PK+ b. increased PK+ or PCl– c. increased PA–

d. increased PCa2+

20. Where is the trigger zone of a neuron? a. in the terminal ganglion b. in the axon hillock c. in the chemically gated channels d. in the dendrites 21. Which of these statements describes the action potential? a. It has an all-or-none characteristic. b. It has no refractory period. c. It is triggered by repolarization to threshold. d. It speeds transmission by any type of summation. 22. Where are synaptic vesicles stored? a. in a synaptic cleft b. in a synaptic knob c. in a postsynaptic membrane d. in postsynaptic dendrites 23. Which of these statements describes the electrical gradient for K+? a. It favours the movement of K+ out of the cell at resting potential. b. It favours the movement of K+ into the cell at resting potential. c. It favours the concentration gradient for K+ at the equilibrium potential for K+. d. The larger the electrical gradient, the less the equilibrium potential is. 24. What is the correct sequence at a synapse? a. neurotransmitter diffuses across cleft; calcium induces exocytosis of neurotransmitter; permeability of postsynaptic membrane is altered; neurotransmitter binds to receptor on chemically gated channel; ion channels open b. neurotransmitter diffuses across cleft; ion channels open; permeability of postsynaptic membrane is altered; calcium induces exocytosis of neurotransmitter; neurotransmitter binds to receptor on chemically gated channel c. calcium induces exocytosis of neurotransmitter; neurotransmitter diffuses across cleft; neurotransmitter binds to receptor on chemically gated channel; ion channels open; permeability of postsynaptic membrane is altered d. permeability of postsynaptic membrane is altered; neurotransmitter diffuses across cleft; ion channels open; neurotransmitter binds to receptor on chemically gated channel; calcium induces exocytosis of neurotransmitter

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Chap 03_5ce 25. Which type of gated channels open in response to changes in membrane potential? a. voltage-gated channels b. chemically gated channels c. mechanically gated channels d. leak channels 26. How does membrane potential change during depolarization of a nerve cell? a. It becomes –70 mV. b. It stays the same. c. It becomes more negative. d. It becomes more positive. 27. Which of the following occurs at an excitatory synapse? a. An action potential in the presynaptic neuron always causes an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron. b. A small hyperpolarization occurs. c. There is increased permeability of the subsynaptic membrane to both Na+ and K+. d. The presynaptic neuron increases the permeability of the subsynaptic membrane of the postsynaptic cell to K+ only. 28. Which of these statements refers to membrane potential? a. Changing the voltage of a membrane stops ions from moving across the membrane. b. If movement of ions across a membrane changes, the voltage will change. c. Its units are ohms. d. It results from a difference in the number of anions and cations inside versus outside the cell. 29. A recording electrode is placed into a nerve cell to measure the membrane potential at a particular point. When the physiologist glances at the recording and sees that the membrane at that instant has a potential of +15 mV, they know that the portion of the membrane being recorded is which of the following? a. in the normal resting state b. in the reversal phase of an action potential c. more permeable to Ca2+ than normal d. in the after hyperpolarization phase of an action potential 30. Which of the following facilitates faster current flow in cells? a. the low conductance of the ICF and ECF b. the high resistance of the membrane lipid bilayer c. membrane cholesterol d. membrane glycoproteins 31. Which of the following describes divergence? a. Thousands of synapses from many presynaptic neurons end on a single postsynaptic cell. b. The dendrites diverge from the cell body to contact as many presynaptic neurons as possible. c. The action potential initiated in the axon diminishes as it diverges into the axon terminals. d. The axon of a nerve cell branches to synapse with many other cells, so that activity in one neuron influences the excitability of many other cells.

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Chap 03_5ce 32. Which of these statements applies to membrane potential? a. a separation of charges across the membrane, or a difference in the relative numbers of + and – charges in the ECF and the ICF b. measured in units of millivolts, with the sign always designating the charge on the outside c. less at the equilibrium potential for K+ than at resting membrane potential d. the presence of K+ inside the cell 33. What prevents bidirectional spread of action potentials along an axon? a. the depolarization phase b. the local current flow c. the inactivity period d. the refractory period 34. What causes presynaptic inhibition? a. increased neurotransmitter production c. neuromodulator effects

b. continued EPSP generations d. alteration of calcium permeability

35. The impedance of the movement of electrical charges through a membrane is known as what? a. resistance b. conductance c. insulation d. hindrance 36. Which term is used to describe a membrane potential of any value other than 0 mV? a. depolarized b. polarized c. hyperpolarized d. repolarized 37. Nodes of Ranvier refers to which area within a neuron? a. the trigger zone b. patches of myelin on the dendrites c. patches of myelin on the axon d. exposed areas of the axon in between patches of myelin 38. Which of these statements does NOT correctly represent how neurotransmitters are involved in neural communication? a. A specific neurotransmitter–receptor combination will always produce the same type of synapse. b. One neuron can release more than one type of neurotransmitter. c. Some neurotransmitters are capable of producing both excitatory and inhibitory synapses. d. Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) always produces excitatory synapses. 39. When a neurotransmitter binds to a subsynaptic membrane and stimulates hyperpolarization, what type of synapse is this? a. negative synapse b. stimulatory synapse c. excitatory synapse d. inhibitory synapse

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Chap 03_5ce 40. Which statement does NOT describe graded potentials? a. They are decremental. b. They travel only short distances. c. They are self-propagating. d. They may contribute to the development of an action potential. 41. What elicits the changes in ion movement and membrane permeability that can alter membrane potential? a. stimulus b. triggering event c. permeability trigger d. effector 42. Why are action potentials considered long-distance signals? a. They are amplified in strength at varying intervals along the plasma membrane, ensuring they are nondecremental. b. They are stronger in magnitude than a graded potential. c. They involve current flow through the entire span of the plasma membrane. d. They occur only in neurons with long axons. 43. The rising phase of the action potential is due to which of these conditions? a. sodium efflux b. potassium efflux c. sodium influx d. potassium influx 44. Which of these statements describes neuropeptides? a. They are synthesized in the cytosol of the axon terminal. b. They are sometimes cosecreted along with classical neurotransmitters. c. They act at the subsynaptic membrane of the postsynaptic neuron. d. They usually alter the potential of postsynaptic cells by opening specific ion channels. 45. What is another name for an action potential? a. propagation b. overshoot c. spike d. firing event 46. Gated channels for Ca2+ in the axon terminal respond to changes in what? a. stretch b. pressure c. chemicals (neurotransmitters) d. voltage 47. Which of the following is NOT one of the possible configurations of the voltage-gated Na+ channel? a. closed but capable of opening b. open and not capable of closing c. closed and not capable of opening d. open

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Chap 03_5ce 48. Which of the following statements accurately describes postsynaptic potentials? a. EPSPs and IPSPs are produced from the opening on voltage-gated ion channels on the postsynaptic membrane. b. EPSPs make it less likely that an action potential will be fired on a postsynaptic neuron. c. IPSPs bring the postsynaptic membrane farther away from threshold. d. IPSPs are produced by the opening of chemically gated sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane. 49. Why are graded potentials short-distance signals? a. They do not contribute to generating electrical signals by excitable cells. b. The magnitude of local current is constant as the distance from the initial site of the graded potential gets larger. c. They are changes in membrane potential less than 15 mV, which is small in magnitude. d. The magnitude of local current gets smaller as the distance from the initial site of the graded potential gets larger. 50. Which of these statements refers to myelin? a. It is produced by oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system. b. It is secreted by neurons and acts as an electrical insulator by wrapping around the axon. c. It is composed primarily of proteins. d. It is required for contiguous conduction of electrical signals. 51. Which of these statements refers to why myelinated axons conduct impulses much faster than unmyelinated axons? a. because channels have to close at the nodes b. because voltage is not lost along myelinated areas c. because of shorter axons d. because of available energy 52. Why is resting membrane potential closer to the equilibrium potential for K+ than for Na+? a. Because the Na+–K+ pump pumps out more K+ than Na+. b. Because the Na+–K+ pump pumps out more Na+ than K+. c. Because the plasma membrane is more permeable to Na+ than to K+. d. Because the plasma membrane is more permeable to K+ than to Na+. 53. Which of these statements describes tetanus toxin? a. It promotes presynaptic facilitation. b. It destroys dopamine in the region of the brain that is involved in controlling complex movements. c. It prevents the release of gamma-aminobutyric acid from presynaptic inputs terminating on neurons that supply skeletal muscles. d. It combines with glycine receptors, thus blocking the action of this inhibitory neurotransmitter.

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Chap 03_5ce 54. In addition to myelination, what other factor determines the speed at which an action potential can be conducted? a. axon permeability b. axon length c. axon diameter d. axon strength 55. What is the name of the structure formed by Schwann cells that helps a severed nerve fibre to re-form? a. regeneration tube b. guidance tube c. reforming tube d. Schwann tube 56. Which of the following describes graded potentials? a. They are local changes in membrane potential that occur as all or none. b. They serve as short-distance signals. c. They serve as long-distance signals. d. They are generated after an action potential. 57. How is the Na+–K+ pump involved in restoring ion concentrations in the ICF and ECF after action potentials? a. It helps re-establish appropriate Na+ and K+ concentration gradients after each action potential. b. It helps in returning a depolarized cell to resting membrane potential during the falling phase. c. It inactivates voltage-gated Na+ channels by triggering closure of the inactivation gates. d. It aids in maintaining appropriate Na+ and K+ concentration gradients over a longer period of time. 58. Which of these statements does NOT refer to action potential propagation? a. It can travel along a membrane in only one direction. b. A single one travels down the entire length of the axon. c. Firing of one at the axon hillock is sufficient to trigger more of them along the entire length of the axon. d. Its strength remains constant throughout the entire length of the axon. 59. The falling phase of the action potential is due to which of these conditions? a. sodium efflux b. sodium influx c. potassium influx d. potassium efflux 60. Which of the following happens during the rising phase of the action potential? a. P Na+ is much greater than PK+. b. P K+ is much greater than PNa+. c. P K+ is the same as PNa+.

d. P Na+ is much lower than PK+.

61. Why does the relative refractory period occur after the action potential is complete? a. because of the activation of the voltage-gated Na+ channels b. because of the sodium–potassium pump c. because of the slowness of the voltage-gated channels d. because of quick potassium efflux

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Chap 03_5ce For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 62. Refer to the text. If presynaptic neuron X is stimulated, the postsynaptic cell membrane becomes slightly hyperpolarized. What kind of a synapse is involved between presynaptic neuron X and the postsynaptic neuron? a. excitatory synapse b. inhibitory synapse c. either an excitatory or an inhibitory synapse d. collateral axoaxonic 63. Which of the following is the last step for synaptic signalling when the action potential arrives at the axon terminal of a presynaptic neuron? a. A neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis. b. Calcium flows in the synaptic knob. c. The neurotransmitter combines with protein receptor sites on the subsynaptic membrane. d. The permeability is altered in a postsynaptic neuron. 64. Which of these statements accurately describes membrane potential? a. The magnitude of membrane potential is inversely proportional to the number of positive and negative charges separated by the membrane. b. Depolarization refers to a change that makes membrane potential more negative. c. After depolarization, the return to resting membrane potential is known as repolarization. d. During hyperpolarization, fewer charges are separated than at resting potential. 65. Which of the following is NOT a way for a synapse to be terminated? a. uptake of the neurotransmitter into the postsynaptic neurons b. inactivation of the neurotransmitter by enzymes c. diffusion of the neurotransmitter out of the synaptic cleft d. uptake of the neurotransmitter back into the presynaptic neuron 66. With a stronger triggering event, what type of gated channels open in larger numbers or for longer duration? a. calcium channels b. sodium channels c. potassium channels d. chloride channels 67. When depolarizing local current flow reaches a node of Ranvier, what occurs? a. an influx of K+ ions c. a depolarizing graded potential

b. a hyperpolarizing graded potential d. an action potential

68. What occurs when the inactivation gate of the voltage-gated Na+ channel is closed? a. The voltage-gated Na+ channel is capable of opening. b. The activation gate is also closed. c. Na+ cannot move into the cell. d. K+ cannot move out of the cell. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce 69. How do charged proteins contribute to resting membrane potential? a. They are positively charged and can permeate the membrane. b. They are positively charged and cannot permeate the membrane. c. They are negatively charged and can permeate the membrane. d. They are negatively charged and cannot permeate the membrane. 70. A patch of membrane in a hypothetical cell has 5 ion channels. If the number of ion channels in this patch was increased to 10, what would happen to current flow? a. Current flow would stay the same. b. Current flow would diminish slower. c. Current flow would diminish faster. d. Current flow would be enhanced faster. 71. Which of these statements describes a threshold potential? a. the point at which there is an explosive increase in Na+ permeability b. the peak potential achieved during an action potential c. the potential achieved when two opposing forces acting upon an ion (concentration and electrical gradients) achieve a state of equilibrium d. the potential at which K+ permeability increases 72. Which of the following is responsible for the falling phase of an action potential? a. opening of Na+ gates b. Na+–K+ pump restoring the ions to their original locations c. greatly increased permeability to Na+ d. opening of K+ gates and K+ efflux 73. Which cell type produces myelin in the peripheral nervous system? a. astrocyte b. Schwann cell c. oligodendrocyte d. neuron 74. Neurotransmitters are stored within which structures? a. postsynaptic vesicles b. dendrites c. endoplasmic reticula d. synaptic vesicles 75. Which of the following happens during the falling phase of the action potential? a. P Na+ is much greater than PK+. b. P K+ is much greater than PNa+. c. P K+ is the same as PNa+.

d. P K+ is much lower than PNa+.

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Chap 03_5ce 76. Why is a stronger stimulus needed to generate an action potential during the relative refractory period? a. because the inactivation gates on some voltage-gated Na+ channels are still closed and voltage-gated K+ channels are slow to close b. because activation gates on voltage-gated Na+ channels are still open c. because the inactivation gates on some voltage-gated K+ channels are still closed d. because the activation gates on voltage-gated Na+ channels are open and voltage-gated K+ channels are slow to close 77. A change in a membrane potential from –70 mV to –60 mV is an example of which of the following? a. depolarization b. hyperpolarization c. polarization d. repolarization 78. Which of these statements refers to IPSP? a. It is produced by increased Na+ permeability and K+ permeability. b. It is produced by increased K+ permeability or increased Cl– permeability. c. It is a small depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron. d. It is produced by increased Na+ permeability only. 79. Which of the following occurs at an excitatory synapse? a. Binding of neurotransmitter to receptors on the subsynaptic membrane opens cation channels that allow both Na+ and K+ to move through them. b. Binding of neurotransmitter to receptors on the subsynaptic membrane opens cation channels that allow only Na+ to move through them. c. Binding of neurotransmitter to receptors on the subsynaptic membrane opens cation channels that allow only K+ to move through them. d. Binding of neurotransmitter to receptors on the subsynaptic membrane opens anion channels that allow Cl– to move through them. 80. During an action potential, when is closing of voltage-gated Na+ channels triggered? a. during the rising phase b. at threshold c. at the peak d. during the falling phase For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 81. Refer to the text. If presynaptic neurons Y and Z are stimulated simultaneously, what change would be expected to occur in the postsynaptic neuron? a. a single EPSP b. a single IPSP c. temporal summation of EPSPs d. spatial summation of EPSPs

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Chap 03_5ce 82. Which of these statements describes neuromodulators? a. They bind to receptors at nonsynaptic sites. b. They contribute directly to EPSP and IPSP formation. c. They are secreted in higher concentrations compared to neurotransmitters. d. They directly alter membrane permeability. 83. Which of these statements does NOT refer to neuronal inhibition? a. With presynaptic inhibition, another neuron selectively excites an inhibitory presynaptic input. b. An IPSP depresses information fed into the cell from any excitatory presynaptic input. c. All the axon terminals of an inhibitory neuron will release inhibitory transmitter. d. An IPSP moves the potential of the postsynaptic neuron farther from threshold. 84. Which of these statements refers to ion permeability and movement during an action potential? a. At resting membrane potential, voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels are closed so there is no movement of these ions across the membrane. b. A triggering event brings resting membrane potential closer to threshold by opening some voltage-gated K+ channels c. Voltage-gated K+ channels begin to open when threshold is reached. d. At resting membrane potential, voltage-gated Na+ channels are in the closed but capable of opening conformation. 85. Which of these statements describes the equilibrium potential for Na+? a. At Na+ equilibrium, membrane potential would be +60 mV. b. It would be reached when the outward concentration gradient and inward electrical gradients for Na+ were equal. c. It would be reached if the number of Na+ ions moving across the plasma membrane was higher than other ions. d. It would be reached when the outward concentration gradient was higher than the inward electrical gradient. 86. What type of conduction is occurring when action potentials are NOT conducted over every patch of the axon’s membrane? a. saltatory b. continual c. contiguous d. continuous 87. Which of these statements refers to nodes of Ranvier? a. They are exposed portions of a myelinated axon with a high density of voltage-gated Na+ channels. b. They are required for contiguous conduction. c. They are the portions of the axon that are covered in myelin and serve to insulate electrical impulses. d. They are found on axons of neurons where speed of propagation is not vital.

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Chap 03_5ce 88. Which of the following occurs in convergence? a. Thousands of synapses from many different presynaptic cells end on a single postsynaptic cell. b. The axon of a nerve cell branches so that the activity in one neuron influences many other cells. c. All the dendrites converge on the cell body. d. The action potential initiated in the dendrites is sped up as it converges onto the axon. For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 89. Refer to the text. What permeability changes would be expected to occur at the postsynaptic neuron when presynaptic neuron Y is stimulated? (Remember that the postsynaptic neuron becomes depolarized by presynaptic neuron Y.) a. increased PNa+ and PK+ b. increased PK+ or PCl– c. increased PA–

d. increased PCa2+

90. Which statement refers to an excitatory synapse? a. sufficient to stimulate an action potential to fire on the postsynaptic neuron b. causes a slight hyperpolarization on the postsynaptic neuron’s membrane c. always determined by the type of neurotransmitter involved d. depolarizes the membrane on the postsynaptic cell, and only increases the chances that an action potential will be fired on the postsynaptic neuron 91. Which of these statements describes what happens when temporal summation takes place? a. Two EPSPs from the same presynaptic input occur so closely together in time that they add together, or sum. b. An EPSP and an IPSP occur simultaneously and cancel each other out. c. Two EPSPs that occur simultaneously from different presynaptic inputs add together, or sum. d. Action potentials occurring in two presynaptic inputs simultaneously converge upon the postsynaptic cell, initiating two different action potentials in the postsynaptic cell. 92. By preventing glycine from binding to the postsynaptic cell, strychnine poisoning can cause which of the following effects? a. muscle spasms b. paralysis c. tolerance d. addiction 93. What is the name for the space between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron? a. synaptic cleft b. synaptic knob c. axon terminal d. synapse 94. What accounts for passive flow between the active area and the surrounding inactive areas? a. opening of K+ channels b. opening of gated Na+ channels c. the difference in electrical charges across the membrane d. the difference in electrical charges along the membrane Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce 95. Which of the following is the first step for synaptic signalling when the action potential arrives at the axon terminal of a presynaptic neuron? a. A neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis. b. Calcium flows in the synaptic knob. c. The neurotransmitter combines with protein receptor sites on the subsynaptic membrane. d. The permeability is altered in a postsynaptic neuron. 96. Which of the following statements accurately describes current flow associated with graded potentials? a. Current flow is produced when ions move across the membrane. b. The strength of current is constant over different parts of the membrane. c. Current flows across the membrane in an undiminishing fashion. d. Current flow away from the initial site of change in membrane potential is bidirectional. 97. What type of conduction is occurring when action potentials fire on every patch of the axon’s membrane? a. saltatory b. continual c. contiguous d. continuous 98. Which of the following describes saltatory conduction? a. occurs in unmyelinated nerve fibres b. slower than conduction by local current flow because the myelin acts as an insulator to slow the impulse c. involves the impulse jumping from one node of Ranvier to the adjacent node d. refers to the action potential spreading from one Schwann cell to the adjacent Schwann cell 99. Which cell type produces myelin in the central nervous system? a. astrocyte b. Schwann cell c. oligodendrocyte d. neuron 100. What do the terms action potential, spike, and firing all refer to? a. the rapid influx of negative ions into the cell b. the changes (both positive and negative) in membrane potential after threshold is reached c. the depolarization to threshold potential d. the rapid reversal of membrane potential 101. What part of the neuron releases chemical messengers that communicate with other cells? a. axon terminal b. collateral c. axon hillock d. soma 102. Which of the following statements does NOT refer to graded potentials? a. They can vary in magnitude. b. They occur on a localized area of the plasma membrane. c. They are caused by a triggering event. d. They are most often generated by opening of voltage-gated channels.

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Chap 03_5ce 103. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding chloride and membrane potential? a. Chloride is the major anion in the ICF. b. In most cells, resting membrane potential is largely determined by chloride movement. c. Resting membrane potential is responsible for the unequal distribution of chloride across the membrane. d. Active transport of chloride by pumps accounts for a large proportion of its movement across the membrane. 104. If voltage-gated Ca2+ channels were inactivated in a neuron, which of the following would be affected directly? a. neurotransmitter binding to its receptor b. diffusion of neurotransmitter across the synaptic cleft c. exocytosis of synaptic vesicles d. depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane 105. The cells of excitable and nonexcitable tissues share which one of these properties? a. a threshold potential b. a resting membrane potential c. an ability to open the Na+ gates

d. an ability to open the K+ gates

106. How does cocaine affect synaptic transmission? a. It prevents dopamine from being released from receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. b. It blocks dopamine from binding to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. c. It prevents reuptake of dopamine into the presynaptic neuron. d. It promotes sustained release of dopamine from the presynaptic neuron. 107. The overshoot refers to which period during the action potential? a. the depolarization immediately after the triggering event b. the depolarization after threshold has been reached c. the repolarization after the peak of the action potential d. the hyperpolarization phase when membrane potential dips below resting membrane potential 108. Which of these nerve fibres will have the highest conduction velocity? a. an unmyelinated nerve fibre (A) with conduction velocity of 0.35 m/sec b. an unmyelinated nerve fibre smaller than nerve fibre A c. a myelinated nerve fibre the same size as nerve fibre A d. a myelinated fibre larger than nerve fibre A 109. Which of these statements describes the concentration gradient for Na+? a. It favours the movement of Na+ into the cell at resting potential. b. It favours the movement of Na+ out of the cell at resting potential. c. Na+ equilibrium potential is –90 mV. d. Na+ equilibrium potential is –60 mV.

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Chap 03_5ce 110. Which of these statements describes the resting membrane potential? a. It is much closer to the equilibrium potential for Na+ than to the equilibrium potential for K+. b. It is much closer to the equilibrium potential for K+ than to the equilibrium potential for Na+. c. It is the same as the equilibrium potential for Cl–. d. It refers to the presence of Na+ inside the cell. 111. Which of the following occurs when a membrane is stimulated due to opening of chemically gated Na+ channels? a. An impulse is propagated. b. A graded potential is established. c. Na+ flows out of the cell.

d. The voltage becomes more negative.

112. Which of the following statements does NOT reflect the correct relative concentration of K+ and Na+ in ECF and ICF? a. The concentration of K+ is lower in the ECF compared to the ICF. b. The concentration of K+ is higher in the ICF compared to the ECF. c. The concentration of Na+ is higher in the ECF compared to the ICF. d. The concentration of Na+ is higher in the ICF compared to the ECF. 113. How does tetanus toxin lead to uncontrolled muscle spasms and lockjaw? a. by preventing the inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine from binding to its receptors b. by inhibiting the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA c. by increasing the release of the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate d. by preventing the excitatory neurotransmitter glycine from being recycled back into the presynaptic neuron 114. The opening of Na+ activation gates, the closing of Na+ inactivation gates, and the opening of K+ gates are all triggered at which stage of the action potential? a. during the rising phase b. during the falling phase c. at threshold d. at the peak 115. Which of the following statements most accurately describes an aspect of graded potentials? a. The most common type of gated channels that open in response to a triggering event are gated K+ channels. b. The duration of the triggering event and duration of the graded potential are directly proportional. c. Stronger triggering events open more ion gated channels, allowing more negative charges to enter the cell. d. Triggering events produce graded potentials that depolarize a large area of the total plasma membrane.

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Chap 03_5ce 116. Which of these statements does NOT refer to propagation of action potentials? a. Saltatory conduction occurs in myelinated nerve fibres. b. During conduction by local current flow, there is a flow of current between the active and the adjacent inactive area of the cell membrane, thereby decreasing the potential in the inactive area to threshold. c. It jumps from one Schwann cell to the adjacent Schwann cell in a myelinated fibre. d. Saltatory conduction is faster than conduction by local current flow. 117. What is the term for the localized area of the plasma membrane where a graded potential occurs? a. the depolarized area b. the trigger area c. the active area d. the inactive area 118. Why is neuronal integration important? a. It is a way for presynaptic neurons to influence many other postsynaptic neurons simultaneously. b. It enables presynaptic neurons to control the information it passes along to postsynaptic neurons. c. It is how postsynaptic neurons process all incoming information to determine if action potentials will be fired. d. It allows postsynaptic neurons to discriminate between weak and strong signals. 119. A change in a membrane potential from +30 mV to –70 mV is an example of ____________________. a. depolarization b. hyperpolarization c. polarization d. repolarization 120. What does the term “relative refractory period” refer to? a. the period where it is easier for a second action potential to be fired on a neuron b. the period where a stronger stimulus than usual produces a stronger action potential c. the period where a second action potential will be fired only if the stimulus is stronger than usual d. the period where a second action potential cannot be fired, no matter how strong the stimulus 121. What prevents current from flowing across the plasma membrane? a. membrane phospholipids b. ion channels c. membrane cholesterol d. membrane glycoproteins 122. What happens when a graded potential is generated on the plasma membrane? a. Membrane potential moves closer to Na+ equilibrium potential. b. Na+ permeability decreases and more Na+ stays in the cell, causing it to depolarize. c. Voltage-gated Na+ opens and the cell depolarizes. d. Na+ channels open and Na+ moves against its concentration gradient. 123. Why can’t severed nerve fibres in the central nervous system regenerate? a. The axons do not have the ability to regenerate. b. Oligodendrocytes produce compounds that prevent regeneration of axons. c. Schwann cells are not present in the central nervous system. d. Nerve fibres in the central nervous system cannot be severed. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce 124. What does membrane potential refer to? a. the difference in electrical potential inside versus outside the cell b. the difference in electrical potential derived from movement of glucose across the membrane c. the difference in electrical potential across the mitochondrial membrane d. the difference in electrical potential derived from the movement of neutral compounds across the membrane 125. Which term is used to describe the hindrance of the flow of electrical current? a. conduction b. resistance c. insulation d. impedance 126. What would be the effect on the resting membrane potential if the number of membrane channels for potassium decreased? a. It would be unaffected. b. It would become more negative. c. It would become more positive. d. It would become closer to the equilibrium potential. 127. What happens when a neurotransmitter binding to its receptors causes increased chloride permeability in the postsynaptic membrane? a. The membrane is brought farther away from threshold. b. The membrane is brought closer to threshold. c. An excitatory synapse will be stimulated. d. The postsynaptic neuron will fire an action potential. For the following questions, assume a hypothetical postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs: X, Y, and Z. Also assume that presynaptic neurons Y and Z are excitatory. 128. Refer to the text. If presynaptic neuron Z is repeatedly stimulated very rapidly, what change would be expected to occur in the postsynaptic neuron? a. a single EPSP b. a single IPSP c. temporal summation of EPSPs d. spatial summation of EPSPs 129. Refer to the text. If presynaptic neuron Y is stimulated, the postsynaptic cell membrane becomes slightly depolarized. What kind of synapse is involved between presynaptic neuron Y and the postsynaptic neuron? a. excitatory synapse b. inhibitory synapse c. either an excitatory or an inhibitory synapse d. There is no synapse.

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Chap 03_5ce 130. Which of the following happens at resting membrane potential? a. The membrane is more permeable to K+ than to Na+. b. The membrane is more permeable to Na+ than to K+. c. Cl– is not at its equilibrium potential. d. The membrane is more permeable to Cl–.

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Chap 03_5ce Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. a 26. d

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Chap 03_5ce 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. d 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. d 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. b 45. c 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. a 51. b 52. d 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce 55. a 56. b 57. d 58. b 59. d 60. a 61. c 62. b 63. d 64. c 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. c 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. a 77. a 78. b 79. a 80. b 81. d 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5ce 83. a 84. d 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. a 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. d 95. b 96. d 97. c 98. c 99. c 100. d 101. a 102. d 103. c 104. c 105. b 106. c 107. b 108. d 109. a 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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