Test Bank for Anatomy, Physiology, & Disease: An Interactive Journey for Health Professionals 3rd Ed by digitaldownload87

CHAPTER 1 1)

Anatomy is defined as the study of __________. A) atoms B) body structures C) how the body functions D) how the body malfunctions

Physiology is defined as the study of __________. A) physics B) body structures C) how the body functions D) how the body malfunctions

Anatomy and physiology are defined as the study of __________. A) the normal and abnormal function of the body B) body structures C) how the body functions D) the body's structure and how those structures function

What is considered standard anatomical position?

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A) The body is upright, the legs are close together, the feet are flat on the floor, the arms are close to the sides, and the face and palms of the hands are facing forward. B) The body is upright, the legs are far apart, the feet are flat on the floor, the arms are close to the sides, and the face and palms of the hands are facing forward. C) The body is upright, the legs are close together, the feet are flat on the floor, the arms are spread far from the sides, and the face and palms of the hands are facing backward. D) The body is lying in a horizontal position, the legs are close together, the feet are pointing upward, the arms are close to the sides, and the face and palms of the hands are facing upward.

What do anatomical terms of direction describe? A) The specific region in which a body part is located B) The body's position C) The location of a particular structure in the body D) The cavity that contains certain organs within the body

6) Which anatomical term of direction is used to describe the location of the ankle in relation to the knee? A) Proximal B) Distal C) Superficial D) Ventral

7) What anatomical term of direction is used to describe the location of the nose in relation to the eyes?

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A) Medial B) Superior C) Lateral D) Ventral

What are the two major anatomical regions of the body? A) Axial and abdominal B) Appendicular and cephalic C) Axial and appendicular D) Cephalic and thoracic

9) If a person sustained cervical dislocation in an accident, what region of his/her body was affected? A) Head B) Neck C) Chest D) Face

10)

What are the two different ways the abdominal region of the body can be divided? A) The abdominal region can be divided into 4 quadrants or 2 regions. B) The abdominal region can be divided into 4 regions or 6 quadrants. C) The abdominal region can be divided into 4 quadrants or 9 regions. D) The abdominal region can only be divided into 4 regions.

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11)

Which of the following organs is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen? A) Heart B) Lungs C) Left kidney D) Liver

12)

In which of the following regions of the abdomen is the navel located? A) Right hypogastric B) Left hypogastric C) Epigastric D) Umbilical

13)

Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that affects what region of the body? A) Foot B) Arm C) Leg D) Wrist

14)

Which of the following anatomical terms of direction refer to the dorsal side of the body? A) Posterior B) Anterior C) Superior D) Inferior

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15)

Where is the diaphragm in relation to the lungs? A) Superficial B) Deep C) Superior D) Inferior

16)

All of the following describe an anatomical region except which one? A) Axial B) Cubital C) Bilateral D) Tarsal

17)

Which of the following describes an anatomical region? A) Right B) Cubital C) Bilateral D) Medial

18)

All of the following are anatomical terms of direction except which one? A) Proximal B) Superior C) Bilateral D) Transverse

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19)

Which of the following is an anatomical plane? A) Sagittal B) Inguinal C) Appendicular D) Plantar

20)

How does a sagittal plane separate the body? A) Top from bottom B) Right from left C) Front from back D) Up from down

21)

If a plane is exactly down the midline of the body, this is called __________. A) transverse B) medial C) midsagittal D) coronal

22)

How does a transverse plane separate the body? A) Top from bottom B) Right from left C) Front from back D) Up from down

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23) Which of the following terms describes an anatomical plane that separates the body top from bottom? A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Midsagittal D) Frontal

24)

How does a frontal or coronal plane separate the body? A) Top from bottom B) Right from left C) Front from back D) Up from down

25) Which of the following terms describes an anatomical plane that separates the body front from back? A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Midsagittal D) Frontal or coronal

26)

What kind of term can be used to describe the position of the entire body or a body part?

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A) Anatomical plane B) Anatomical region C) Anatomical cavity D) Anatomical position

27)

Which anatomical term of position describes the anterior surface facing up? A) Supine B) Ventral C) Anterior D) Prone

28)

Which anatomical term of position describes the anterior surface facing down? A) Supine B) Ventral C) Anterior D) Prone

29)

In standard anatomical position, the palms are in what position? A) At the sides, facing forward B) Lifted anteriorly and supine C) At the sides and pronated D) At the sides, facing medially

30)

A patient lying on their ventral or anterior surface, face down would be in what position?

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A) Supine B) Dorsal C) Posterior D) Prone

31)

Which of the following is not an anatomical cavity in the body? A) Thoracic B) Dorsal C) Inguinal D) Abdominal

32)

The thoracic cavity can be subdivided into which cavities? A) Abdominal and pelvic cavities B) Cranial and vertebral cavities C) Pleural and pericardial cavities D) Thoracic and abdominal pelvic cavities

33)

The abdominopelvic cavity can be subdivided into which two cavities? A) Abdominal and pelvic cavities B) Cranial and vertebral cavities C) Pleural and pericardial cavities D) Thoracic and abdominal pelvic cavities

34)

How many anatomical cavities does the thoracic cavity contain?

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A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

35)

Which membrane lines the abdominal and pelvic cavities? A) Meningeal B) Pleural C) Pericardial D) Peritoneal

36)

Which organs are associated with the dorsal cavity? A) Brain and spinal cord B) Lungs and heart C) Digestive organs D) Reproductive organs

37)

What is the mediastinum?

A) The wall separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity B) The three layers of membrane surrounding the brain and spinal cord C) The space between the pleural cavities that contains the heart, esophagus, trachea, thymus, and major vessels D) Another name for the anatomical cavity located in the middle of the body

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38) two?

Which of the following anatomical cavities has an organ that serves as a wall between the

A) Cranial and vertebral B) Pleural and pericardial C) Abdominal and pelvic D) Thoracic and abdominopelvic

39)

Which of the following cavities contain serous membranes? A) Cranial B) Inguinal C) Thoracic D) Brachial

40)

What is a serous membrane? A) A single layered membrane B) A double layered membrane with air between the two layers C) A double layered membrane that contains fluid between the two layers D) A membrane that covers the brain and spinal cord

41)

Which of the following statements is false regarding serous membranes? A) Serous membranes are found in the thoracic and cranial body cavities. B) Serous membranes have fluid between the two membrane layers. C) The pleurae and peritoneum are examples of serous membranes. D) Serous membranes are double layered membranes.

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42)

Which membrane surrounds the lungs in the thoracic cavity? A) Meninges B) Pleura C) Pericardium D) Peritoneum

43)

Which membrane surrounds the heart in the thoracic cavity? A) Meninges B) Pleura C) Pericardium D) Peritoneum

44)

Which of the following statements is false regarding the pericardium?

A) The pericardium is an example of a serous membrane. B) The pericardium is composed of two layers, the visceral pleura and parietal pericardium. C) The visceral layer of the pericardium is in contact with the heart. D) Pericardial fluid fills the space between the two layers of the pericardium.

45)

Which organ is surrounded by the pericardium?

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A) Lung B) Small intestine C) Heart D) Kidney

46)

Which organs are surrounded by a pleural membrane? A) Lung B) Large intestine C) Heart D) Kidney

47)

What is homeostasis? A) The body's ability to maintain a steady internal environment B) Negative feedback C) Positive feedback D) The body's ability to function outside of the optimal range

48) Which of the following statements is an example of the body's ability to maintain homeostasis? A) Michael has been sick with the flu and he has a fever. B) Bill must be sure to take his blood pressure medication in order to control his chronic hypertension. C) Mary had a physical and was pleased to hear that her blood pressure was within the normal range. D) Connie has diabetes and must take insulin injections to control her high blood glucose levels.

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49)

What is negative feedback?

A) The body's ability to maintain homeostasis B) The process the body uses to reverse the direction of movement away from homeostasis C) The process the body uses to increase the movement away from homeostasis D) The body's ability to function outside of the optimal range

50)

All of the following are examples of negative feedbackexcept __________. A) sweating in response to elevated body temperature B) secretion of insulin in response to increased blood glucose C) secretion of glucagon in response to decreased blood glucose D) uterine contractions in response to the pressure of the baby's head on the cervix

51)

What is positive feedback?

52)

Positive feedback includes __________.

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A) sweating in response to elevated body temperature B) secretion of insulin in response to increased blood glucose C) secretion of glucagon in response to decreased blood glucose D) uterine contractions in response to the pressure of the baby's head on the cervix E) All of these answers are examples of negative feedback.

53)

Which of the following statements regarding homeostasis is false?

A) If the body detects a change and works to make the levels move even farther away from homeostasis, that is positive feedback. B) If the body detects a change beyond its normal homeostasis range (either too high or too low) and it works to reach its homeostasis range by reversing the direction of movement, that is positive feedback. C) Homeostasis is the body's ability to maintain a steady internal environment. This is achieved using positive and negative feedback mechanisms. D) Homeostasis is the body's ability to overcome an imbalanced internal environment. This is achieved using positive and negative feedback mechanisms.

54) Which of the anatomical terms of direction describes the diaphragm's relation to the stomach? A) Inferior B) Superior C) Anterior D) Posterior

55) Relating to or affecting two sides refers to which of the following anatomical terms of direction?

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A) Bilateral B) Superior C) Anterior D) Lateral

56) Closer to the connection to the body refers to which of the following anatomical terms of direction? A) Distal B) Superficial C) Deep D) Proximal

57) Which of the anatomical terms of direction best describes the wrist's relationship to the shoulder? A) Proximal B) Superior C) Distal D) Posterior

58) Which of the anatomical terms of direction describes the relationship of the hypodermis to the epidermis? A) Superficial B) Superior C) Deep D) Distal

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59)

Which of the anatomical regions houses the stomach? A) Abdominal B) Axillary C) Appendicular D) Anterior

60)

The lungs are housed in which of the following anatomical regions? A) Axial B) Axillary C) Appendicular D) Abdominal

61) Bryan has a blister on the surface of his palm from raking the leaves. Which set of anatomical terms correctly describes Bryan's blister? A) Bryan has a superficial blister on the palmar surface of his palm in the appendicular region of his body. B) Bryan has a superior blister on the palmar surface of his palm in the appendicular region of his body. C) Bryan has a superficial blister on the plantar surface of his palm in the appendicular region of his body. D) Bryan has a superficial blister on the palmar surface of his palm in the axial region of his body.

62) Susan has a tumor on her left ovary. Which set of anatomical terms correctly describes Susan's tumor?

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A) Susan has a deep, lateral tumor located in the pelvic region of her body. B) Susan has a deep, bilateral tumor located in the pelvic region of her body. C) Susan has a deep tumor located in the abdominal region of her body. D) Susan has a deep tumor located in the appendicular region of her body.

63)

The femoral region refers to which part of the body? A) Knee B) Ankle C) Thigh D) Leg

64)

The cubital region refers to which part of the body? A) Wrist B) Elbow C) Arm D) Hand

65)

The anterior cubital region refers to which part of the body? A) Wrist B) Front of the elbow C) Upper arm D) Back of the hand

66)

The posterior patellar region refers to which part of the body?

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A) Knee B) Front of the knee C) Upper knee D) Back of the knee

67)

The dorsal cavity houses which of the following organs? A) Brain B) Kidneys C) Vertebrae D) Lungs

68)

The thoracic cavity houses all of the following structures except which one? A) Heart B) Lungs C) Pleural membrane D) Peritoneum

69)

Separating the right and left side of the body is achieved by what anatomical plane? A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Frontal D) Coronal

70)

Separating the top and bottom half of the body is achieved by what anatomical plane?

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A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Frontal D) Coronal

71)

Separating the front and back half of the body is achieved by what anatomical plane? A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Frontal D) Midsagittal

72)

Which of the following organs are housed in the mediastinum? A) Kidneys B) Lungs C) Esophagus D) Spleen

73)

All of the following organs are housed in the mediastinum except which one? A) Heart B) Lungs C) Esophagus D) Trachea

74)

Which part of the pleural membrane is in direct contact with the lungs?

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A) Visceral B) Parietal C) Pleura D) Peritoneum

75) Which part of the pleural membrane lines the pleural cavity and is not in direct contact with the lungs? A) Visceral B) Parietal C) Mesentery D) Peritoneal

76)

The dorsal cavity can be subdivided into which two cavities? A) Abdominal and pelvic cavities B) Cranial and vertebral cavities C) Pleural and pericardial cavities D) Thoracic and abdominal pelvic cavities

77)

Pathology is defined as the study of __________. A) disease B) body structures C) how the body functions D) pathways throughout the body

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78)

Disease is defined as __________.

A) the body's internal balance B) normally functioning organs or organ systems resulting in homeostasis C) abnormally functioning organs or organ systems where the body's internal balance is maintained D) abnormally functioning organs or organ systems resulting in a disruption in homeostasis

79)

Malaise is described as __________. A) fever B) a feeling of general discomfort C) a genetic abnormality D) malnutrition

80)

Which of the following can indicate a disease may be present? A) Malaise B) Inflammation C) Abnormal diagnostic test results D) All of the answer choices can indicate the presence of disease.

81)

What are predisposing factors of disease? A) Factors that affect people's health B) Factors under a person's control such as lifestyle and environment C) Factors that a person cannot control such as age, gender, and heredity D) All of these answer choices are correct

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82)

Which of the following is not considered a predisposing factor of disease? A) How old you are B) Whether you are male or female C) Your symptoms of disease D) Your genetic makeup

83)

Which predisposing factor of disease can be controlled by the individual? A) Age B) Lifestyle C) Gender D) Heredity

84)

Which predisposing factor of disease cannot be controlled by the individual? A) Age B) Lifestyle C) Environment D) All of these predisposing factors can be controlled by the individual.

85)

Which category of childhood diseases is characterized by a defect being present at birth? A) Infectious disease B) Congenital disorder C) Genetic disorder D) Developmental disorder

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86) Which category of childhood diseases is characterized by an event that disrupts the normal development of the child? A) Infectious disease B) Congenital disorder C) Genetic disorder D) Developmental disorder

87) Which category of childhood diseases is caused by inherited genes which have been passed to children by their parents? A) Infectious disease B) Congenital disorder C) Genetic disorder D) Developmental disorder

88)

Which type of disease results from an infection caused by a microorganism? A) Infectious disease B) Congenital disorder C) Genetic disorder D) Developmental disorder

89) Which statement correctly describes why children are more susceptible to infectious diseases?

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A) Children inherit this susceptibility from their parents. B) A child's immune system is not fully developed and continues to mature throughout childhood. C) Children are not as clean as adults. D) Children are not more susceptible to infectious diseases.

90)

Which statement regarding age as a predisposing factor is false? A) Children and the elderly are more susceptible to disease due to age. B) This predisposing factor can be controlled by an individual. C) As people live longer they become more susceptible to disease. D) Children are more susceptible to diseases than adults because of their age.

91)

Which statement regarding the elderly and age as predisposing factor to disease is false? A) All organs have the ability to regenerate so they work better as one gets older. B) Aging changes normal body function. C) As people live longer they become more susceptible to disease. D) General body function is reduced as people age.

92)

Which predisposing factor refers to the genetic makeup of an individual? A) Heredity B) Lifestyle C) Environment D) Gender

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93)

Which predisposing factor refers to the sex of an individual? A) Age B) Lifestyle C) Environment D) Gender

94)

Which of the following statements is true regarding signs and symptoms of disease? A) Signs cannot be measured. B) Symptoms are objective signals of disease. C) Symptoms cannot be measured. D) Nausea is considered a sign.

95)

Which of the following is an example of a sign of disease? A) Fever B) Vomiting C) Headache D) Nausea

96)

Which of the following is an example of a symptom of disease? A) High blood pressure B) Fever C) Weight gain D) Nausea

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97)

What is pain? A) The body's immune response to injury B) A defense mechanism used by the body to warn a person that everything is alright C) The increase of blood flow to an injured area D) Physical suffering or distress due to injury or illness

98)

What is the purpose of experiencing pain? A) So the body's immune system can respond to injury B) To serve as a defense mechanism to warn the person that there is a problem C) To increase blood flow to an injured area D) To cause suffering or distress during injury or illness

99)

Which of the following happens during inflammation? A) Blood vessels dilate. B) Fluid leaks out of blood vessels causing swelling. C) Blood flow to the injured area is increased. D) All of the answers happen during inflammation.

100)

What is inflammation? A) The body's normal immune response to injury and disease B) The decrease of blood flow to an injured area C) Physical suffering or distress due to injury or illness D) A defense mechanism to warn the person that there is a problem

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101)

Which statement regarding inflammation is false? A) Inflammation causes pain. B) Inflammation causes redness. C) Inflammation causes an injured area to feel cooler. D) Inflammation causes swelling.

102)

Which statement regarding inflammation is true? A) Decreased blood flow causes redness and heat. B) Increased blood flow causes vessel dilation. C) Increased blood flow causes swelling D) Increased fluid leaking from blood vessels causes swelling.

103)

Which class of disease is caused by pathogens? A) Infectious diseases B) Cancers C) Immune disorders D) Trauma

104)

Which class of disease is characterized by uncontrolled cell growth? A) Infectious diseases B) Cancers C) Immune disorders D) Trauma

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105)

Which class of disease results from the inability of the body to effectively defend itself? A) Genetic disorders B) Cancers C) Immune disorders D) Mental disorders

106)

Which statement correctly describes hypersensitivity? A) Hypersensitivity can range from mild to severe. B) Hypersensitivity involves an overreaction of the immune system to an allergen. C) Severe hypersensitivity may cause anaphylaxis. D) All of these statements correctly describe hypersensitivity.

107) Which immune disorder is characterized as an inability of the immune system to distinguish between its own tissues and foreign tissue or cells? A) Autoimmune disorder B) Hypersensitivity C) Immunodeficiency disorder D) Anaphylaxis

108) Which type of immune disorder causes a deficiency in the immune system's ability to defend the body?

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A) Autoimmune disorders B) Hypersensitivities C) Immunodeficiency disorders D) Anaphylaxis

109)

Which immune disorder involves an overreaction of the immune system to an allergen? A) Autoimmune disorder B) Hypersensitivity C) Immunodeficiency disorder D) HIV

110)

Which class of disease results from abnormalities in the genetic code? A) Genetic disorder B) Infectious disease C) Immune disorder D) Trauma

111)

In the case of a genetic disorder, how can the genetic code be changed? A) By an antigen B) By a mutagen C) By a trauma D) None of these answers are correct.

112)

What is a mutagen?

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A) An agent that causes an allergic response B) An agent that causes cancer C) An agent that causes a genetic mutation D) An agent that causes an immunodeficiency

113)

Which class of disorders includes conditions of the mind? A) Genetic disorders B) Cancers C) Mental disorders D) Trauma

114)

Which class of disorders is characterized by a wound or shock caused by an injury? A) Genetic disorders B) Cancers C) Mental disorders D) Trauma

115)

Which step in determining a diagnosis involves collecting information from the patient? A) Obtaining a medical history B) Performing an examination C) Using diagnostic screening tools and tests D) Comparing test results with normal findings

116)

Which of the following can help a physician develop a diagnosis?

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A) Diagnostic test results B) Obtaining a medical history from the patient C) Performing a medical exam D) All of these will help a physician develop a diagnosis.

117)

When can a differential diagnosis be used?

A) When all the information collected clearly points to one disease or disorder B) When signs, symptoms, and results of the diagnostic examination do not yield enough information to diagnose the patient with a specific disease C) When test results are inaccurate D) When diagnostic test results have not been reviewed by the physician

118)

What is a differential diagnosis? A) An interpretation of all the data collected to determine the cause of the problem B) A diagnosis used when more than one disease is responsible for the patient's condition C) A treatment plan D) A predicted outcome of how the patient will recover from the disease

119)

What type of treatment plan is used to make a patient more comfortable? A) Palliative B) Curative C) Therapeutic D) Preventive

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120)

An organ transplant falls under what treatment plan? A) Palliative B) Curative C) Therapeutic D) Preventive

121) Which treatment plan may involve a recommendation to eat healthy and exercise regularly? A) Palliative B) Curative C) Therapeutic D) Preventive

122)

Which treatment plan may involve physical therapy after an injury? A) Palliative B) Curative C) Therapeutic D) Preventive

123)

Which statement describes palliative treatment? A) The goal of treatment is to make a patient more comfortable. B) The goal of treatment is to cure the patient of the disease. C) The goal of treatment is to restore normal function. D) The goal of treatment is to prevent disease.

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124)

Which statement describes curative treatment?

A) The goal of treatment is to make a patient more comfortable during the terminal stages of the disease. B) The goal of treatment is to cure the patient of the disease. C) The goal of treatment is to restore normal function. D) The goal of treatment is to prevent disease.

125)

Which statement describes therapeutic treatment?

126)

Which statement describes preventative treatment?

127)

Which statement correctly compares palliative and curative treatment plans?

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A) Palliative and curative treatment are both used to restore normal function. B) Palliative treatment is used to cure the patient and curative treatment is used to make the patient more comfortable in the terminal stages of disease. C) Palliative treatment is used to prevent disease and curative treatment is used to make the patient more comfortable in the terminal stages of disease. D) Palliative treatment is used to make the patient more comfortable, and curative treatment is used to cure the patient.

128)

What is epidemiology? A) The study of how disease affects the overall health and well-being of a population B) The rate and range of the occurrence of a disease C) How widespread the occurrence of a disease may be D) None of these answers are correct.

129)

What is the incidence of a disease? A) The study of how the disease affects the overall health and well-being of a population B) The number of new cases of disease in a population C) The total number of cases of a disease in a population D) None of these is correct.

130)

What is the prevalence of a disease? A) The study of how disease affects the overall health and well-being of a population B) The number of new occurrences of the disease in a population C) The total number of cases of a disease in a population D) None of these is correct.

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131)

How does epidemiology affect healthcare? A) Epidemiology helps healthcare providers prevent the spread of disease. B) Epidemiology helps healthcare providers treat disease. C) Epidemiology helps healthcare providers diagnose disease. D) All of these answers are correct.

132)

Which statement about the Spanish flu is false? A) The Spanish flu occurred in 1819. B) The Spanish flu claimed over 50 million lives worldwide. C) The Spanish flu infected one-third of the world's population. D) The Spanish flu was considered a pandemic.

133)

Which of the following accounts for about one third of all deaths in the United States? A) Heart disease and stroke B) Diabetes C) Arthritis D) Obesity

134)

What is the second leading cause of death in the United States? A) Heart disease B) Diabetes C) Cancer D) Obesity

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135) When considering developmental disorders, when does the damage to the brain that causes the disability occur? A) Prenatally B) Perinatally C) Postnatally D) Damage to the brain can occur prenatally, perinatally, or postnatally.

136)

Which statement about pain is true? A) A pain scale allows patients to rank their pain. B) Pain can be measured. C) Pain is an objective sign of disease. D) Pain always disappears on its own.

137)

Which of the following are examples of mediators of inflammation? A) Heparin and warfarin B) Histamine and prostaglandins C) Interferon and complement D) Coumadin and aspirin

138)

Which of the following is not a symptom of inflammation?

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A) Numbness B) Redness C) Heat D) Swelling

139)

Which of the following does not happen during inflammation? A) The damaged tissues produce chemicals called mediators of inflammation. B) Blood vessels become more permeable. C) Fluid from the blood leaks out into the surrounding damaged tissue. D) Blood flow to the area is decreased.

140) How does the body's immune system respond to an injury that allows bacteria and pathogens to enter tissue under the skin? A) Pain B) Anaphylaxis C) Inflammation D) The body's immune system does not respond to this type of injury.

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A) Anything that takes up space B) Anything that has mass C) Anything that takes up space and has mass D) Everything is composed of matter.

Which of the following is not composed of matter? A) All of the answer choices contain matter. B) The air we breathe C) The steam formed from boiling water D) The fumes emitted from a vehicle

Which forms of an element can be used as a diagnostic tool? A) Isomers B) Radioisotopes C) Ions D) Stereoisomers

What are the outermost subatomic particles in an atom? A) Protons B) Neutrons C) Electrons D) Nuclei

Which of the following correctly describes the atomic number?

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A) The combined number of protons and neutrons B) The number of protons C) The number of electrons D) The combined number of protons and electrons

9) Which of the following types of bonding is characterized by two or more atoms sharing electrons to fill their outer shells? A) Ionic bond B) Covalent bond C) Charged bond D) Hydrogen bond

10)

Which of the following is not true regarding the functions of water? A) Water chemically bonds molecules to form electrolytes. B) Water works as a lubricant in tears and the fluid of joints. C) Water aids in chemical reactions as in saliva during digestion. D) Water is used to transport nutrients and wastes in blood plasma.

11) Which statement correctly describes a hypertonic solution when compared to another solution? A) The solution has a higher concentration of solutes than the other solution. B) The solution has the same concentration of solutes as the other solution. C) The solution has a lower concentration of solutes than the other solution. D) The solution is less concentrated with solvent than the other solution.

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12)

What is an acid? A) A molecule with a pH of 7 B) A molecule that releases a hydroxide ion when added to water C) A molecule that releases a hydrogen ion when added to water D) A molecule with a pH higher than 7

13)

What is a base? A) A molecule with a pH of 7 B) A molecule that releases a hydroxide ion when added to water C) A molecule that releases a hydrogen atom when added to water D) A molecule with a pH of less than 7

14)

If a solution has a pH of 12, which of the following statement is incorrect? A) The solution is a base. B) The solution will release hydroxide ions when added to water. C) The solution is alkaline. D) The solution will release hydrogen ions when added to water.

15)

What condition results if the blood's pH is less than 7.35? A) Acidosis B) Alkalosis C) Acidic D) Alkaline

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16)

What are the four types of organic molecules? A) Glucose, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids B) Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids C) Monosaccharides, proteins, lipids, nucleotides D) Carbohydrates, amino acids, lipids, nucleic acids

17)

Which of the following is not a function of proteins? A) To transport other molecules B) To provide strength C) To fight foreign invaders D) To store energy

18)

Which organic molecules make up the genetic material of a cell? A) Proteins B) Lipids C) Nucleic acids D) Carbohydrates

19)

What are the building blocks of proteins? A) Monosaccharides B) Amino acids C) Nucleotides D) Glycerols

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20)

Which of the following is a function of lipids? A) To form genetic material B) To transport other molecules C) To fight foreign invaders D) To store energy

21)

Carbohydrates contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in which of the following ratios? A) 1:1:1 B) 2:1:2 C) 1:2:1 D) 2:1:1

22)

What is metabolism? A) The speed of chemical reactions in a human body B) The sum total of all chemical reactions in the human body C) The temperature of chemical reactions in the human body D) The concentration of reactants in chemical reactions within the human body

23)

What governs the speed of a reaction? A) The concentration of reactants B) The temperature of the reaction C) The presence of a catalyst D) All of these choices are correct.

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24)

What does the human body use cellular respiration for? A) To release and capture the energy held in molecular bonds B) To create carbon dioxide C) To produce water D) To allow us to breathe

25)

What is ATP? A) A usable form of energy for the cell B) A modified glucose molecule C) The waste product produced by cellular respiration D) Adenosine diphosphate

26)

Which organelle regulates what enters and exits the cell? A) Cell membrane B) Golgi complex C) Lysosomes D) Nucleus

27)

Which organelle is responsible for assembling amino acids into proteins? A) Cell membrane B) Golgi complex C) Lysosome D) Ribosome

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28)

Which organelle is responsible for carrying out cellular respiration? A) Cell membrane B) Golgi complex C) Mitochondrion D) Ribosome

29)

Which organelle does not play a role in synthesizing and processing proteins? A) Mitochondrion B) Golgi complex C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Ribosome

30)

Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane? A) To give the cell structure B) To regulate what enters and exits the cell C) To defines the cell's intracellular and extracellular environment D) To house the DNA

31)

The phospholipids in the cell membrane are composed of what? A) Transport proteins B) Hydrophilic tails C) Hydrophobic heads D) Hydrophobic chains and hydrophilic heads

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32)

The cell membrane contains all of the following except _________. A) phospholipids B) secretory vesicles C) cholesterol D) channels

33)

Which of the following correctly describes passive transport? A) Transport of materials across the cell membrane B) Transport of materials across the cell membrane up the concentration gradient C) Transport of materials across the cell membrane with the use of energy D) Transport of materials across the cell membrane without the use of energy

34)

Which statement correctly compares passive and active transport?

A) Passive transport moves materials across the cell membrane without the use of energy while active transport moves materials across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient with the use of energy. B) Passive transport moves materials across the cell membrane with the use of energy while active transport moves materials across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient without the use of energy. C) Passive transport moves materials across the cell membrane with the use of energy while active transport moves materials across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient with the use of energy. D) Passive transport moves materials across the cell membrane without the use of energy while active transport moves materials across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient without the use of energy.

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35)

Which of the following types of transport require energy? A) Filtration B) Facilitated diffusion C) Active D) Osmosis

36)

Which of the following is not a form of passive transport? A) Filtration B) Endocytosis C) Osmosis D) Simple diffusion

37)

What is osmosis?

A) The diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane until concentrations are equal on either side of the membrane B) The diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane against its concentration gradient C) The diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low water concentration to high water concentration D) The diffusion of solutes across a semipermeable membrane

38)

Which statement incorrectly describes active transport?

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A) The transport of materials from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration B) The movement of materials up a concentration gradient C) The transport of materials across the cell membrane with the use of energy D) The transport of materials from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration

39)

The sodium/potassium pump is an example of which type of transport? A) Filtration B) Facilitated diffusion C) Active D) Osmosis

40)

Which statement correctly describes endocytosis? A) The movement of materials in bulk out of the cell B) The movement of materials in bulk into the cell C) The passive movement of materials out of the cell D) The movement of small molecules out of the cell

41)

Protein synthesis involves which two stages? A) Active and passive transport B) Endocytosis and exocytosis C) Osmosis and diffusion D) Transcription and translation

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42)

ACGUUGCACGU represents what kind of nucleic acid? A) DNA B) RNA C) cDNA D) ssDNA

43) Which of the following stages of protein synthesis reads the mRNA strand and assembles a protein based on the sequence of codons present on the mRNA strand? A) Transcription B) Translation C) Translocation D) Replication

44)

Which statement best describes meiosis? A) Meiosis is a type of cell division that involves all cell types in the human body. B) Meiosis is a type of cell division that involves sperm and egg cells. C) Meiosis is a type of cell division that involves all cell types except sperm and egg

cells. D) Meiosis is a type of cell cloning.

45)

Which of the following statements best describes mitosis?

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A) Mitosis is a type of cell division that involves all cell types in the human body. B) Mitosis is a type of cell division that involves sperm and egg cells. C) Mitosis is a type of cell division that involves all cell types except sperm and egg cells. D) Mitosis is a type of gamete formation.

46) Which of the following statements correctly describes the parent cell and daughter cells in mitosis? A) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become two identical daughter cells. B) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become two different daughter cells. C) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become one identical daughter cell. D) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become two identical sex cells.

47)

Which statement correctly compares chromatin to chromosomes?

A) Chromatin is loosely arranged DNA in the cell's nucleus while the cell is not dividing while chromosomes are tight compact bundles of DNA present during cell division. B) Chromatin is tightly packed DNA in the cell's nucleus while the cell is not dividing while chromosomes are also tight compact bundles of DNA present during cell division. C) Chromatin is loosely arranged DNA in the cell's nucleus while the cell is dividing while chromosomes are tight compact bundles of DNA present while the cell is not dividing. D) Chromatin is tightly packed DNA in the cell's nucleus while the cell is not dividing while chromosomes are loosely arranged bundles of DNA present during cell division.

48)

In humans, what is the total number of chromosomes in a daughter cell after mitosis?

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A) 12 B) 23 C) 46 D) 92

49)

Which of the following is false regarding mutations in DNA replication? A) Mutations can benefit the cell. B) Mutations can be detrimental to the cell. C) Mutations will be passed to future daughter cells. D) There is no mechanism for proofreading DNA replication in order to avoid mutations.

50)

What is telomerase?

A) An enzyme present in cancer cells that repairs telomere damage during replication making the cancer cell immortal B) An enzyme present in normal cells that repairs telomere damage during replication making the normal cell immortal C) An enzyme present in normal cells that repairs telomere damage during replication D) An enzyme present in cancer cells that repairs telomere damage during replication making the cancer cell die

51)

Which statement correctly describes the function of telomeres?

A) Telomeres are protective caps on the ends of chromosomes that help stabilize them. B) Telomeres are protective caps on the ends of chromosomes that prevent replication. C) Telomeres are protective caps on the ends of chromosomes that help the cell age. D) Telomeres are protective caps on the ends of chromosomes that allow the chromosome to stick to other chromosomes.

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52)

What is histology? A) The study of tissues B) The study of the human body C) The study of the history of anatomy D) The study of body functions

53)

Which of the following is not a class of tissues? A) Epithelial B) Muscle C) Neuron D) Connective

54)

Which of the following statements correctly describes epithelial tissue?

A) Epithelial tissues cover and line all body surfaces including organs, vessels, and ducts. B) Epithelial tissues allow for movement of the body. C) Epithelial tissues have fibers in a matrix. D) Epithelial tissues allow for communication within the body by using electrical and chemical signals.

55)

Which of the following statements correctly describes muscle tissue?

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A) Tissue that lines and covers all body surfaces B) Tissue that allows for communication through chemical and electrical signals C) Tissue that allows movements through the contraction of cells D) Tissue that has cells and fibers in a matrix

56)

Which of the following statements correctly describes nervous tissue? A) Tissue that lines and covers all body surfaces B) Tissue that allows for communication through chemical and electrical signals C) Tissue that allows movements through the contraction of cells D) Tissue that has cells and fibers in a matrix

57)

Which of the following is a function of nervous tissue? A) Movement B) Communication C) Structural support D) Protection

58)

Which of the following is a function of connective tissue? A) Movement B) Communication C) Structural support D) Coverage

59)

Which of the following is a function of muscle tissue?

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A) Movement B) Communication C) Structural support D) Coverage

60)

Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissue? A) Movement B) Communication C) Structural support D) Coverage

61)

Which of the following is not an eptithelial cell shape? A) Cuboidal B) Squamous C) Columnar D) Stratified

62)

Which of the following is a correct statement about cardiac muscle? A) Cardiac muscle cells are branched and multinucleated. B) Cardiac muscle is striated and voluntary. C) Cardiac muscle is smooth and involuntary. D) Cardiac muscle is striated and involuntary.

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63) Which of the following statements correctly compares skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle? A) Skeletal muscle is striated and voluntary, while cardiac muscle is striated and involuntary. B) Skeletal muscle is smooth and voluntary, while cardiac muscle is striated and involuntary. C) Skeletal muscle is striated and voluntary, while cardiac muscle is striated and voluntary. D) Skeletal muscle is striated and involuntary, while cardiac muscle is smooth and involuntary.

64)

Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue? A) Bone B) Blood C) Muscle D) Cartilage

65)

Which term describes a stacked layer of epithelial cells? A) Simple B) Stratified C) Pseudostratified D) Transitional

66)

The respiratory tract is lined with which tissue type?

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A) Muscle B) Connective C) Epithelial D) Nervous

67)

Which of the following correctly describes transitional epithelial tissue? A) It is composed of a single layer of cells. B) It is found lining the kidney tubules. C) It is designed to stretch. D) It provides protection from abrasion.

68)

Which connective tissue type functions in storing lipids? A) Blood B) Bone C) Adipose D) Cartilage

69)

What type of cartilage is found in the outer ear? A) Hyaline cartilage B) Elastic cartilage C) Fibrocartilage D) Fibroelastic cartilage

70)

What type of cartilage is found in the nose?

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A) Hyaline cartilage connective tissue B) Elastic cartilage connective tissue C) Fibrocartilage connective tissue D) Fibroelastic cartilage connective tissue

71)

Which of the following is not one of the three types of cartilage? A) Hyaline cartilage connective tissue B) Elastic cartilage connective tissue C) Fibrocartilage connective tissue D) Fibroelastic cartilage connective tissue

72)

What is the function of neuroglia? A) Communication B) Protection and support C) Movement D) Coverage

73)

Which statement describes hypertrophy? A) Tissue growth is achieved by an increase in the number of cells B) Tissue growth achieved by an increase in cell size C) Tissue growth is achieved by a decrease in the number of cells D) Tissue growth achieved by a decrease in cell size

74)

Which statement describes hyperplasia?

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A) Tissue growth achieved by an increase in the number of cells B) Tissue growth achieved by an increase in cell size C) Tissue growth achieved by a decrease in the number of cells D) Tissue growth achieved by a decrease in cell size

75)

What is neoplasia? A) Tissue growth achieved by an increase in the number of cells B) Tissue growth achieved by an increase in cell size C) The mutation of cells from one type into another D) The uncontrolled growth of cells

76)

Which of the following incorrectly describes a benign neoplasm?

A) A neoplasm that remains localized B) A neoplasm that is encapsulated C) A neoplasm that does not metastasize D) A neoplasm in which cells have broken off and traveled to other parts of the body where they are producing more abnormal cells

77)

Which of the following correctly describes a malignant neoplasm?

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