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CHUYÊN ĐỀ ÔN THI THPTQG MÔN TIẾNG ANH

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HƯỚNG DẪN HỌC SINH LÀM CÁC DẠNG CÂU HỎI CỦA BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TRONG ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM Tài liệu chuẩn tham khảo Phát triển kênh bởi Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú Đơn vị tài trợ / phát hành / chia sẻ học thuật : Nguyen Thanh Tu Group Hỗ trợ trực tuyến Fb www.facebook.com/DayKemQuyNhon Mobi/Zalo 0905779594

CHUYÊN ĐỀ - HƯỚNG DẪN HỌC SINH LÀM CÁC DẠNG CÂU HỎI CỦA BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TRONG ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH PHẦN I: I. LÍ DO CHỌN CHUYÊN ĐỀ Tiếng Anh hiện nay đã và đang trở thành một ngoại ngữ quan trọng tại Việt Nam. Từ nhiều năm nay, Tiếng Anh đã được đưa vào chương trình đạo tạo từ cấp Tiểu học và trở thành một trong những môn học chính và quan trọng trong các cấp học. Đặc biêt, môn Tiếng Anh là một trong ba môn thi bắt buộc trong kỳ thi THPT Quốc Gia tại Việt Nam. Dù chất lượng bộ môn đang dần được cải thiện, tuy nhiên vẫn chưa đạt được mức kỳ vọng, thậm chí còn thấp so với nhiều môn học khác. Cụ thể, theo thống kê của Bộ GD-ĐT cho thấy, năm 2019, cả nước có 789.435 thí sinh dự thi môn tiếng Anh. Trong đó có tới 542.666 thí sinh có điểm dưới trung bình, chiếm tỷ lệ 68,74%. Mức điểm có nhiều thí sinh đạt được nhất ở môn tiếng Anh là 3,75. Mức điểm trung bình môn đạt 4,3. Đây thực sự là một tình trạng đáng phải cân nhắc về việc dạy và học Tiếng Anh tại nước ta. Chất lượng bộ môn chưa được nâng cao nhiều một phần là do kỹ năng làm bài thi của học sinh còn hạn chế. Như chúng ta đều biết, học ngôn ngữ ngoài việc nắm chắc các kiến thức ngữ pháp, điều quan trọng là người học phải thành thạo các kỹ năng ngôn ngữ: nghe, nói, đọc, viết. Mỗi kỹ năng có một vai trò khác nhau. Tuy nhiên, vận dụng vào kỳ thi THPT Quốc Gia thì kỹ năng đọc hiểu là quan trọng nhất. Đây là một phương tiện hữu hiệu cần thiết cho học sinh có thể nắm vững, củng cố kiến thức ngôn ngữ, mở rộng vốn từ vựng cũng như hiểu sâu văn phong, cách sử dụng ngôn ngữ mình đang học. Đọc hiểu được nhận định là một trong những phần thi khó nhất trong đề thi THPTQG môn tiếng Anh. Phần đọc hiểu bao gồm đọc 2 văn bản khoảng 250 – 350 từ theo các chủ đề tự nhiên, môi trường, xã hội ... Bài đọc hiểu với tổng số câu là 13 câu, chiếm 26% tổng số câu trong đề thi. Qua đó có thể thấy rằng, nắm chắc phần đọc hiểu, học sinh có thể cải thiện đáng kể kết quả thi của mình. Dù là một nội dung khó, đọc hiểu cũng là phần thi mà chúng ta hoàn toàn có thể chinh phục được thông qua việc luyện tập. Thông thường, các câu hỏi trong bài đọc hiểu được chia làm 3 nhóm câu hỏi chính với 7 dạng bài tập cụ thể. Mỗi dạng sẽ có dấu hiệu nhận biết và cách làm bài khác nhau. Nắm vững được cách làm bài này, học sinh có thể hoàn thành môn thi Tiếng Anh với kết quả tốt. Trong quá trình dạy và học Ngoại Ngữ tại trường THPT Sáng Sơn, tôi nhận thấy rằng, kỹ năng đọc hiểu văn bản của học sinh còn nhiều hạn chế. Đa phần học sinh ngại phải làm bài đọc và có xu hướng chọn đáp án ngẫu nhiên trong bài thi trắc nghiệm, hoặc lặp lại thông tin có chứa từ khóa trong bài thi tự luận. Có thể thấy, kỹ năng chọn lọc và phân loại thông tin của học sinh còn rất hạn chế. Mặt khác, bài đọc hiểu có lượng từ vựng khá lớn, lượng từ mới cũng nhiều khiến cho học sinh luôn e ngại và mặc định đây là dạng bài khó. Nắm được các khó khăn của học sinh và các trở ngại trong vấn đề đọc hiểu văn bản, tôi mạnh dạn chia sẻ một số kinh nghiệm về các dạng bài đọc hiểu và cách làm các bài tập sau khi đọc. Thông qua chuyên đề: “Hướng dẫn học sinh làm các dạng câu hỏi của bài đọc hiểu trong đề thi THPT quốc gia”, tôi hy vọng có thể giúp học sinh hiểu rõ hơn các dạng câu hỏi trong đề thi, cách xác định và chọn lọc thông tin cũng như các kỹ năng cần thiết để hoàn thành tốt phần thi đọc hiểu. II. MỤC ĐÍCH CỦA CHUYÊN ĐỀ Hệ thống các dạng câu hỏi trong phần đọc hiểu của đề thi THPTQG môn Tiếng Anh Liệt kê các dấu hiệu giúp học sinh nhận biết yêu cầu của câu hỏi Cung cấp các kỹ năng, kỹ thuật giúp học sinh xác định và phân loại thông tin, nâng cao kết quả của phần đọc hiểu III. ĐỐI TƯỢNG ÁP DỤNG 380 học sinh lớp 12 trường THPT Sáng Sơn IV. THỜI LƯỢNG ÁP DỤNG 9 tiết (45 phút/ 1 tiết) Năm học 2019-2020

PHẦN II: NỘI DUNG CHUYÊN ĐỀ A. PHƯƠNG PHÁP LÀM BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TRẮC NGHIỆM VỚI NHIỀU CÂU HỎI. I. KHÁI QUÁT:những lưu ý cần thiết khi làm bài đọc hiểu 1. Về mặt câu hỏi: Có 10 dạng cơ bản sau: 1- Tìm ý chính của bài đọc (Main idea). 2- Xác định mục đích của bài (Purpose). 3- Tìm thông tin hỗ trợ cho câu hỏi (Support question). 4- Nhận diện cách tổ chức ý tưởng hoặc bố cục chung (General organization). 5- Xác định câu cụm từ đồng nghĩa (Restatement). 6- Suy luận/ tìm hàm ý (Inference). 7- Tìm từ đồng nghĩa/ trái nghĩa (Vocabulary). 8- Xác định thông tin không được đề cập đến trong bài (Except/ Not). 9- Tìm từ hoặc cụm từ được nói đến/ được quy chiếu đến (Reference). 10- Xác định ý nghĩa hoặc định nghĩa của một từ/ cụm từ được nêu trong bài đọc (Definition) 2. Về trình tự trả lời các câu hỏi Trong các dạng câu hỏi nêu trên, câu hỏi 1-4 là câu hỏi về các thông tin chung, câu hỏi 5- 10 là câu hỏi về thông tin cụ thể trong bài đọc. Việc phân loại câu hỏi giúp các em có hướng tiếp cận khác nhau đối với từng loại câu hỏi, trước hết là có trình tự làm như sau: Dạng câu hỏi 5 – 10 (Specific questions) làm trước, câu hỏi dạng 1- 4 (General questions) làm sau. 3. Trật tự các câu hỏi Thường sắp xếp theo trật tự thông tin của bài đọc (tức là các thông tin để trả lời câu hỏi lần lượt theo thứ tự từ đầu đến cuối bài). Đôi khi có đảo vị trí nhưng không nhiều. Việc xác định này giúp các em dễ tìm thông tin cần thiết để trả lời câu hỏi. II. CÁC BƯỚC GIẢI CỤ THỂ: Dạng câu hỏi 5 -10 (specific questions) làm trước, dạng câu hỏi 1– 4 (general questions) làm sau: * Câu hỏi 1: Câu hỏi chủ đề - Tổng hợp lại các thông tin cụ thể của bài - Sử dụng phương pháp loại trừ - loại 1 trong 3 phương án sau: ý chính (main idea) quá rộng (too general); ý chính quá hẹp (too specific); hoặc ý chính không được đề cập tới trong bài (no given information). * Câu hỏi 2:Câu hỏi về mục đích viết bài của tác giả 4 lựa chọn thường có dạng: - A. to analyze + tân ngữ 1 - B. to criticize + tân ngữ 2 - C. to describe + tân ngữ 3 - D. to explain + tân ngữ 4 => Lựa chọn đúng phải là lựa chọn có chứa tân ngữ là ý chính hoặc thông tin minh họa cho ý chính của bài đọc hiểu. * Câu hỏi 3: Tìm thông tin hỗ trợ cho ý chính/ luận điểm. Thực chất đây là câu suy luận (inference), nhưng không phải suy diễn từ bài đọc mà là từ ý chính phương pháp như câu hỏi 6. * Câu hỏi 4: Cách tổ chức, bố cục của bài đọc. Dựa vào ý chính của bài đọc (main idea) và dấu hiệu chuyển đoạn (transitional signals) như “However/ Therefore/ Consequently, …..). *Câu hỏi 5: Câu hỏi đồng nghĩa/ trái nghĩa. - Dấu hiệu nhận biết: Thường bắt đầu bằng “ According to the passage ….” - Đáp án là 1 câu có cùng nội dung nhưng khác cách diễn đạt (paraphrase). - Dựa vào từ chủ chốt (key words) tìm trong câu hỏi, từ đó soi vào bài đọc, tìm câu chứa từ chủ chốt, đọc câu đó, câu trước và câu sau đó. - Cuối cùng tự tổng hợp lại ý (paraphrase), đọc 4 phương án để trả lời.

* Câu hỏi 6: Câu hỏi hàm ý - Dấu hiệu nhận biết: “It can be infered from the passage that ….” Trong cấu trúc 1 bài essay gồm 3 phần (conclusion), facts/ evidence, assumption) thì phần giả định (assumption) là phần tác giả không đề cập tới (để người đọc tự hiểu). Nhiệm vụ của người làm câu câu hỏi 6 là rút ra giả định từ bài đọc. - Với loại câu hỏi này, các em dựa vào sự hiểu bài đọc của mình. * Câu hỏi 7: Câu hỏi từ vựng - Tìm dòng tham chiếu có chứa từ đó, đọc câu chứa từ đó và câu trước, câu sau đó. - Hiểu nội dung 3 câu đó, loại bỏ từ cần đoán nghĩa, và thay thế từ đó bằng 1 từ được cho là có nghĩa tương đương. Không nhất thiết hiểu nghĩa chính xác của từ mà chỉ cần biết được khuynh hướng chung, nội dung khái quát của từ đó (ý tốt/ ý xấu, tăng/ phát triển, thúc đẩy/ giảm/ trì trệ…) Trở lại câu hỏi từ vựng, xem từ nào có nghĩa tương đương (most similar meaning) nhất thì chọn. - Trong 4 phương án gợi ý, ta thường dễ dàng loại được 2 phương án sai, 2 phương án còn lại hay gây nhầm lẫn, bởi 1 từ có nghĩa hay gặp nhất trong từ điển (nghĩa đen), và 1 từ có nghĩa bóng. Đây là chỗ người ra đề hay tạo ra bẫy hoặc gây nhiễu. Câu hỏi 8: Câu hỏi loại trừ Đọc phần trong bài có chứa các thông tin trong phần đáp án lựa chọn, từ đó có thể loại trừ các đáp án không có hoặc không đúng trong bài Câu hỏi 9: Tìm từ quy chiếu - Dấu hiệu nhận biết: “The word “them” in line 2 refers to …” - Mức độ gây nhiễu của người ra đề thường là cho rất nhiều danh từ trong cùng một câu, làm các em bối rối không biết Đại từ nào (“They/ Them/ It …”) thay thế cho danh từ nào. Cẩn thận đọc và dịch lại câu đó để tránh nhầm lẫn đáng tiếc. Câu hỏi 10: Câu hỏi định nghĩa(tương đối dễ) Dấu hiệu nhận biết: - Dấu phẩy: S, __ , V (trong 2 dấu phẩy nhiểu khả năng là định nghĩa hoặc từ làm rõ nghĩa cho chủ ngữ) - Dấu gạch ngang – - Dấu ngoặc đơn ( ) PHẦN III: BÀI GIẢNG I. Bài giảng 1: Skill 1- MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS Almost every reading passage will have a multiple-choice question about the main idea of a passage. Such a question may be worded in a variety of ways; you may, for example, be asked to identify the topic, subject, title, primary idea, or main idea. It is relatively easy to find the main ideas by studying the topic sentences, which are most probably found at the beginning of each paragraph. If a passage consists of only one paragraph, you should study the beginning of that paragraph to determine the main idea. a. How to define the question 1- What is thetopicof the passage? 2- What is the subjectof the passage? 3- What is the main ideaof the passage? 4- What is the author'smain pointin the passage? 5- With what is the author primarily concerned? 6- Which of the following would be the best title? b. Where to find the question The answer to this type of question can generally be determined by looking at the first sentence of each paragraph. c. How to answer the question 1- Read the first line of each paragraph.

2- Look for a common theme or idea in the first lines. 3- Pass your eyes quickly over the rest of the passage to check that you have really found the topic sentence(s). 4- Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices. d. Phần vận dụng Passage 1: Basketball was invented in 1891 by a physical education instructor in Springfield, Massachusetts, by the name of James Naismith. Because of terrible weather in winter, his physical education students were indoors rather than outdoors. They really did not like the idea of boring, repetitive exercises and preferred the excitement and challenge of a game. Naismith figured out a team sport that could be played indoors on a gymnasium floor, that involved a lot of running, that kept all team members involved, and that did not allow the tackling and physical contact of American style football. The question: What is the topicof this passage? A. The life of James Naismith B. The history of sports C. Physical education and exercise D. The origin of basketball The first sentence of this passage states that basketball was invented, so the invention of basketball is probably the topic. Aquick check of the rest of the sentences in the passage confirms that the topic is, in fact, the beginnings of the sport of basketball. Now you should check each of the answers to determine which one comes closest to the topic that you have determined. Answer A. mentions James Naismith but not basketball, so it is not the topic. Answer B. is too general; it mentions sports but does not mention basketball. Answer C. is also too general; it mentions physical education but does not mention basketball. The best answer is therefore answer D.: the origin of basketball means that the way that basketball was invented is going to be discussed. If a passage consists of more than one paragraph, you should study the beginning of each paragraph to determine the main idea. In a passage with more than one paragraph, you should be sure to read the first sentence of each paragraph to determine the subject, topic, title, or main idea. The followings outline the key information that you should remember about main idea questions. Passage 2: The average home library has a number of old favourite books, many unread books, and a few very useful books. The most useful one of all - besides the dictionary – is likely to be a world almanac. A good almanac includes a wealth of information – biographical, historical, and geographical. Records of all sorts – the highest, the lowest, the longest and the biggest – are all included in the almanac. - The main idea of the paragraph is that _____. A. Everyone should have a home library. B. The almanac is an unread book. C. The dictionary is not the most useful book. D. An almanac includes important information. => Tất cả các yếu tố như home library, useful book, dictionary, almanac đều xuất hiện trong đoạn. Mặc dù vậy, nếu để ý kỹ bạn sẽ thấy rằng những câu ở trên là những dẫn chứng tiêu biểu để chứng minh cho câu cuối cùng “records of all sorts…. are all included in the almanac” và đây chính là câu chốt của đoạn. Một cách diễn đạt khác của câu chốt này chính là “An almanac includes important information” nên D là đáp án của bài. Ngoài ra, với một số đoạn văn ý chính của đoạn lại có thể được đặt ở giữa đoạn hay có khi không nằm hoàn toàn trong bất kỳ câu nào. Chẳng hạn: Passage 3: Nothing is as useful as a flashlight on a dark night if a fire goes flat. Few inventions are as helpful to a child who is afraid of the dark. In fact, the modern flashlight brings light to many darksituations. Finding something in the back of a closet is easy with a flashtlight in hand. A camperalso needs one after the light of the campfire has faded.

The main idea of the paragraph is that _____. A. Some children are afraid of the dark. B. Modern flashlight is very useful. C. You need a flashlight to find things. D. A flashlight is always beside any campers. => Cấu trúc của đoạn trên như sau: Giới thiệu – câu chốt – dẫn chứng. Do vậy ý chính của đoạn nằm ở giữa câu. Và đáp án câu trên chắc chắn là B. Passage 4: Dishes have to be washed. There are floors to sweep and laundry to wash, fold and put away. Windows need washing, and furniture needs to be dusted and polished. Besides these chores, houses need constant organization too. The main idea of the paragraph is that _____. A. Any houses have dishes and floors. B. We often have to wash windows. C. Houses need constant organization. D. Housework is never done. => Để làm được loại bài không có câu chốt như thế này, bạn cần phải đọc kỹ toàn đoạn và tự rút ra thông điệp tác giả muốn gửi tới người đọc. Trong đoạn văn trên, rõ ràng, tất cả những dẫn chứng đưa ra đều nói lên rằng công việc nhà là những chuỗi không bao giờ kết thúc đối với người nội trợ. Vì vậy, D là đáp án đúng. Lưu ý: Cũng với mục đích tìm ý chính của bài, người ra đề có thể yêu cầu học sinh tìm tiêu đề thích hợp cho đoạn. Khi làm những câu hỏi này, các em không những cần phải hiểu ý chính của bài, mà còn phải biết khái quát các ý nhỏ thành một chủ đề lớn. - Bài đọc vận dụng 1: Upon the creation of the United States, one of the core concepts on which the hopes for the new democracy were pinned was the ideal that its citizens would be enlightened individuals with clearly articulated rights and the opportunity for individual achievement and education. It wasbelieved that in a free nation where the power belongs to the people, the commitment to education defines the progress of that democracy and is the catalyst for future progress. Thiscore value has not only stood the test of time but has also grown in importance. In this new Information Era and international economy, education is an increasingly vital commodity, a precursor of potential success and a driving force of change. It is important to recognize,however, that we approach education today differently than in the past, partly because the kindsof jobs people had didn't require the kind of basic education and specialized training that is often required in the workforce today. In the 1950s, for instance, only 20 percent of American jobs wereclassified as professional, 20 percent as skilled, and 60 percent as unskilled. Today, our world has changed. The proportion of unskilled jobs has fallen to 20 percent, while skilled jobs now account for at least 60 percent of the workforce. Even more important, almost every job todayincreasingly requires a combination of academic knowledge and practical skills that require learning throughout a lifetime. - Which of the following titles would be best for the passage? A. Education and Jobs in the Past and at Present in the United States B. The Significant Role of Education in American Citizens' Careers C. Academic Knowledge and Practical Skills in American Professions D. Recent Changes of Educational and Vocational Systems in America => Ta thấy rằng nội dung của cả 4 phương án đều xuất hiện trong đoạn văn trên và đều nói về nền giáo dục của Mỹ. Tuy nhiên, để tìm được tiêu đề của đoạn, ta phải chọn cụm từ mang tính chung nhất bao quát toàn bộ ý tưởng của tác giả. Trong 4 phương án trên ta có thể thấy rằng “nghề nghiệp và việc làm trong quá khứ và hiện tại ở Mỹ”, “kiến thức lý thuyết và kỹ năng thực hành trong nghề nghiệp ở Mỹ” hay “những thay đổi gần đây về giáo dục và việc làm ở Mỹ” đều xoay quanh vai trò to lớn của nền giáo dục đối với nghề nghiệp của các công dân Mỹ mà thôi, và đây chính là ý nghĩa chung được chứng minh bởi các luận điểm và dẫn chứng đưa ra trong bài. Vì vậy, B mới là đáp án đúng.

Trong nhiều bài thi, các em cũng có thể bắt gặp câu hỏi về thái độ hoặc ngụ ý của tác giả trong đoạn văn. Các em nên nhớ rằng, mỗi từ mà tác giả sử dụng đều mang đến cho chúng ta những ý nghĩa ngoài định nghĩa trong từ điển, những ngụ ý riêng mà người viết muốn chuyển tải. - Bài đọc vận dụng 2: The telephone has the power to break into people’s homes. It is an unusual person who can choose not to answer a ringing telephone. Also, very few people turn their telophones off. The telephone is a door that is always open to the outside world. Which of these statements are implied in the information of the paragraph? A. Most people always answer their telephone. B. Most people have telephones. C. Most people turn off their telephones. D. Most telephones now have doors. => Nhìn chung, thái độ của người viết trong đoạn văn trên đều rất ủng hộ những tính năng tốt đẹp của điện thoại và câu “It is an unusual person who can choose not to answer a ringing telephone” đã giúp ta hiểu ẩn ý của nhà văn là “Most people always answer their telephone.” II. Bài giảng 2 1. Câu hỏi tìm nghĩa tương đương của một TỪ trong đoạn văn. - Học sinh thường gặp khó khăn trong việc chọn đáp án vì có những từ có nghĩa gần nhau hoặc có nhiều từ là từ mới. Để làm tốt các câu này, học sinh nên xem xét kỹ mối quan hệ của từ cần tìm nghĩa với các từ, cụm từ xung quanh. a. Ví dụ 1: - Television is one of the main subjects of conversation, at school, in offices, at home and in the street, as well as being written about in all the newspapers. At school or in offices, television is considered as a topic _____. A. for learning B. for people to talk about C. for discussion D. for entertainment => Mặc dù câu hỏi không hỏi trực tiếp, nhưng ta cũng thấy rằng điều mấu chốt của câu hỏi trên nằm ở nghĩa của từ conversation. Trong 4 phương án thì “(a topic) for people to talk about” là cách diễn đạt có ý gần nhất và đây cũng chính là đáp án đúng. b. Ví dụ 2: - Holding your head to one side shows interest in the other, while an easy, open posture indicates that you are self-confident. What does the word "open" in the passage most closely mean? A. Unrestrained B. Relaxed C. Confined D. Unlimited => Dựa vào cụm từ xung quanh, ta thấy rằng từ open phải mô tả một tư thế khiến người khác nghĩ rằng bạn rất tự tin. Trong 4 phương án trên unrestrained (không kiềm chế), relaxed (thoải mái), confined (giới hạn), unlimited (không giới hạn) thì chỉ có relaxed phù hợp về nghĩa mặc dù nếu không nằm ngữ cảnh thì hai từ này chẳng có mối liên hệ nào. 2. Tìm thông tin là ngày tháng (date), - Nhìn thật nhanh vào các con số, các chữ cái viết hoa, các dấu phẩy, các tên tháng, ngày và con số. Ví dụ: “In 1945 the town’s population was 176,214 and in 1975 it was 200,842. By December 1985 the population had grown to 250, 562.” When was the latest population count taken? _____. A. In 1945. B. In 1975. C. In 1985. D. In 2000. => Trong câu hỏi trên, ta phải tập trung vào các con số chỉ năm 1945, 1975 và 1985. Và con số gần đây nhất về dân số chắc chắn là được tính vào năm 1985. 3. Tìm một thông số, hay một sự kiện - Chú ý các dấu câu, đặc biệt là các dấu khác thường như %, dấu hiệu đơn vị tiền tệ như $ hoặc những từ viết in nghiêng như like, các từ gạch chân hoặc các từ đặt trong dấu ngoặc kép (“..”). Ví dụ: “The rainfall in the city is usually 16 inches per year, but in 1979 the rainfall was a record setting

20 inches. Therefore, about 20% fewer tourists came to visit the city than usual. Because of the drop in the tourist trade, the city lost $100,000 in business owing to the rain.” How much money did the city lost? _____. A. 16 inches B. 20 inches C. 20% D. $100,000 => Không khó khăn gì ta có thể tìm ra câu trả lời chính là $100,000 nhờ có dấu hiệu $ (đô la Mỹ). Và nếu nhìn nhanh và hiểu chính xác câu hỏi, bạn sẽ chỉ mất vài tích tắc cho câu hỏi này. 4. Câu hỏi về cách diễn đạt tương đương. - Điều này không chỉ yêu cầu bạn cần có óc phân tích tổng hợp trong phạm vi từ, cụm từ mà thậm chí còn phải liên hệ giữa các câu và các đoạn. a. Ví dụ 1: Newcastle is on the bank of the River Tyne. There is a cathedral and a university. Newcastle is next to Gateshead. The main industries used to be shipbuilding and coalmining, but now the chemical and soap industries are important. I miss the people, who are very friendly, and I miss the beautiful countryside near the city, where there are so many hills and streams. Which of the following is NOT true about Newcastle? A. Its people are friendly. B. Its main industry now is shipbuilding. C. It has a cathedral and a university. D. It is next to Gateshead. => Ta xét từng đáp án như sau: phương án C và D đã có trong bài, mặt khác, thông qua đại từ quan hệ who đứng trước the people (who are very friendly), ta cũng thấy rằng phương án A là một đặc điểm của Newscatle. Shipbuilding trong B cũng có trong đoạn, tuy nhiên với cụm từ usedto ta hiểu rằng thông tin phía sau chỉ một việc đã từng xảy ra ở quá khứ nay không còn tồn tạinữa. Và ngành công nghiệp chính của Newcastle nay là chemical and soap industries chứ không phải là shippbulding nữa nên B là đáp án đúng. b. Ví dụ 2: Also, a stranger may remind you of a meeting with someone. This may be because of something as simple as the fact that he or she is physically similar to someone who treated you well or badly. Your feelings about a stranger could be influenced by a smell in the air that brings to mind a place where you were happy as a child. Since even a single word can bring back a memory such as that, you may never realize it is happening. What one feels about a stranger may be influenced by something that _____. A. strengthens one's past behaviours C. revives one's past memories B. reminds one of one's past treatment D. points to one's childhood => Thoạt nhìn, học sinh thường chọn đáp án B vì thấy xuất hiện từ remind giống trong bài. Tuy nhiên, đây là một câu “bẫy” rất thú vị. Ta không thể chọn “reminds one of one's past treatment” vì cụm đó có nghĩa là người nói nhớ về cách cư xử của chính mình còn đoạn văn lại nói về những ký ức về cách cư xử của người khác với tác giả. Vì vậy, C. revives one's past memories mới là đáp án đúng. c. Ví dụ 3: In the 1950s, for instance, only 20 percent of American jobs were classified as professional, 20 percent as skilled, and 60 percent as unskilled. Today, our world has changed. The proportion of unskilled jobs has fallen to 20 percent, while skilled jobs now account for at least 60 percent of the workforce. The passage shows the percentage of jobs that require higher training in the US between the 1950s and now. A. has remained the same B. has changed dramatically C. has been reversed D. has changed slightly => Trong câu hỏi trên, phương án A và D bị loại vì sai ý hoàn toàn. Phương án C có nghĩa là tỉ lệ đã bị đảo ngược. Rất nhiều học sinh chọn phương án này vì nghĩ rằng tỉ lệ đã cho trong bài là 20%-60% bị đảo thành 60%-20%. Tuy nhiên, câu hỏi của ta lại chỉ đề cập đến đến “higher training”, vì vậy từ reversed ở đây không hợp lý. Ta phải rút ra một nhận định là số phần trăm đó đã tăng mạnh và B mới là phương án đúng. d. Bài tập vận dụng thêm

When we were in England last year, I went fishing with my friend, Peter. Early in the morning we were sitting quietly by the side of a lake when we had an unpleasant surprise. We saw a duck come along with three ducklings paddling cheerfully behind her. As we watched them, there was a sudden swirl in the water. We caught a glimpse of the vicious jaws of a pike – a fish which is rather like a freshwater shark – and one of the ducklings was dragged below the surface. This incident made Peter furious. He vowed to catch the pike. On three successive mornings we returned to the vicinity and used several different kinds of bait. On the thirs day Peter was lucky. Using an artificial frog as bait, he managed to hook the monster. There was a desperate fight but Peter wa determined to capture the pike and he succeeded. When he had got it ashore and killed it, he weighed the fish and found that it scaled nearly thirty pounds – record for that district. 1. Why do you think Peter was sitting quietly by the lake? A. He was watching the ducks. C. He was waiting for the pike to appear. B. He wasn’t very talkative. D. He was fishing. 2. Which word in the passage suggests that the duckling were unaware of the danger below them? A. three B. along C. paddling D. cheerfully 3. What was Peter’s feelings about the incident two days later? A. He caught and killed the pike. B. He remained determined to catch the pike. C. He vowed that he would catch the remaining ducklings. D. He caught a frog and used it as bait for the pike. 4. How much was the pike worth? A. About thirty pounds. B. About two hundred and forty dollars. 5. What can be the title of the passage? A. Mysterious disappearance of ducklings. B. Revenge on a duck. III. Bài giảng 3: Tìm thông tin hỗ trợ cho ý chính/ luận điểm. A stated detail question asks about one piece of information in the passage rather than the passage as a whole. The answers to these questions are generally given in order in the passage, and the correct answer is often a restatement of what is given in the passage this means that the correct answer often expresses the same idea as what is written in the passage, but the words are not exactly the same. Example: The passage: Flutes have been around for quite sometime, in all sorts of shapes and sizes and made from a variety of materials. The oldest known flutes are, about 20,000 years old, they were made from hollowed-out bones with holes cut in them. In addition to bone, older flutes were often constructed from bamboo or hollowed-out wood. Today flutes are generally made of metal, and in addition to the holes they have a complicated system of keys, levers, and pads. The instrument belonging to well-known flautist James Galway is not just made of any metal, it is made of gold. The question: According to the passage, the oldest flutes A. had holes cut in them B. were made of metal C. were made 200,000 years ago D. had a complicated set of levers and pads Since this question asks about the oldest flutes, you should see that this question is answered in the second sentence. The passage states that the oldest known flutes were bones with holes cut in them, so the best answer is answer A.. Answers B. and D. are true about today's flutes but not about the oldest flutes, so they are incorrect. Answer C. is an incorrect number; the oldest flutes are 20,000 years old, not 200,000 years old.

The followings outline the key information that you should remember about stated detail questions: HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION It is stated in the passage... According to the passage… The passage indicates that… Which of the following is true...? WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER The answers to the questions are found in order in the passage. HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION 1. Choose akey word in the question. 2. Skim in the appropriate part of the passage for the key word or idea. 3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully. 4. Eliminate the definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices. IV.Bài giảng 4 : Tìm thông tin không đề cập trong bài You will sometimes be asked in the reading section to find an answer that is not stated or not mentioned or not true in the passage. This type of question really means that three of the answers are stated, mentioned, or true in the passage, while one answer is not. Example: The passage: The Florida Keys are a beautiful chain of almost 1,000 coral and limestone islands. These islands form an arc that heads first southwest and then west from the mainland. U.S.Highway 1, called the Overseas Highway, connects the main islands in the chain. On this highway, it is necessary to cross forty-two bridges over the ocean to cover the 159 miles from Miami, on the mainland, to Key West, the farthest island on the highway and the southernmost city in the United States. The question: Which of the following is NOTmentioned about the Florida Keys? A. The Florida Keys are a chain of islands. B. The Florida Keys contain coral and limestone. C. The Florida Keys are in the shape of an arc. D. The Florida Keys are not all inhabited. This question asks for the one answer that is not mentioned about the Florida Keys. The passage states that the Florida Keys are a chain (answer A) with coral and limestone (answer B) in the shape of an arc (answer C), so these answers are not correct. The best answer is therefore answer D.. The passage does not mention whether or not the keys are all inhabited. The followings outline the key information that you should remember about “unstated” detail questions: HOW TO DENTIFY THE QUESTION Which of the following is not stated...? Which of the following is not mentioned...? Which of the following is not discussed…? Which of the following are true except....? WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER The answers to these questions are found in order in the passage. HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION 1. Choose a key word in the question. 2. Scan the appropriate place in the passage for the key word (or related idea). 3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully. 4. Look for answers that are definitely true according to the passage Eliminate those answers. 5. Choose the answer that is not true or not discussed in the passage. V. Bài giảng 5: IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTIONS In this type of question, you will be asked to answer a multiple choice question about a reading passage by drawing a conclusion from a specific detail or details in the passage. Questions of this type contain the words implied, inferred, likely, or probably to let you know that the answer to the question is not directly stated. In this type of question, it is important to understand that you

do not have to "pull the answer out of thin air." Instead, some information will be given in the passage, and you will draw a conclusion from that information. Example: The passage: The number of rings in a tree can be used to determine how old a tree really is. Each year a tree produces a ring that is composed of one light-colored wide band and one dark-colored narrow band. The wider band is produced during the spring and early summer when tree stem cells grow rapidly and become larger. The narrower band is produced in fall and early winter when cell growth is much slower and cells do not get very large. No cells are produced during the harsh winter and summer months. The question: It is impliedin the passage that if a tree has 100 wide bands and 100 narrow bands, then it is A. a century old B. two centuries old C. fifty years old D. twohundred years old This question asks about the age of a tree with 100 wide bands and 100 narrow bands. The passage does not tell the age of a tree with 100 wide and narrow bands, but it does indicate that….wide band and one.....narrow band are produced each year From this, you can draw the conclusion that a tree with 100 wide and narrow bands is 100 years, or a century, old. The best answer to this question is therefore answer A.. The followings outline the key information that you should remember about implied detail questions. IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTIONS It is implied in the passage that…… It is most likely that……

It can be inferred from the passage that..…. What probably happened.....?

The answers to these questions are generally found in order in the passage. 1. Choose a key word in the question. 2. Scan the passage for the key word (or a related idea). 3. Carefully read the sentence that contains the key word. 4. Look for an answer that could be true, according to that sentence. V.Bài giảng 6:tìm từ đồng nghĩa hoặc trái nghĩa Youmay be asked to determine the meaning of a difficult word or expression that you do not know. In this case, the passage often gives you a clear indication of what the word or expression means. Example: The passage: .......... ..........Professor Richmond's hobby is philately. The professor has been quite interested in collecting stamps for a number of years .......... .......... The question: The word "philately" in line 1 could best be replaced by A. a philanthropic attitude B. a common profession C. stamp collecting D. teaching classes In this question, you are asked to choose an expression to replace philately. You are not expected to know the meaning of the word philately. Instead, you should understand from the context that if the professor is interested in collecting stamps, then philately is most likely stamp collecting. Answer C. is therefore the best answer to this question. The followings outline the key information that you should remember about vocabulary questions: HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION

What is the meaning of “X” in line Y? The word “X” in line Y could best be replaced by… WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER Information to help you understand the meaning of a vocabulary word can often be found in the context surrounding the word. HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION 1. Find the word in the passage. 2. Read the sentence that contains the word carefully. 3. Look for context clues to help you understand the meaning. 4. Choose the answer that the context indicates. PHẦN IV: KẾT LUẬN: CÁC KỸ NĂNG CHÍNH KHI LÀM BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU Skill 1: MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS Almost every reading passage will have a multiple choice question about the main idea of apassage. Such a question may be worded in a variety of ways; you may, for example, be asked to identify the topic, subject, title, primary idea or main idea. It is relatively easy to find the main ideas by studying the topic sentences, which are most probably found at thebeginning of each paragraph. ( Hầu như mỗi đoạn đọc hiểu đều có câu hỏi về ý chính của đoạn văn: topic (chủ đề), subject (chủ đề, đề tài), primary or main idea (ý chính). Để tìm ý chính, chúng ta phải đọc câu chủ đề (topic sentence) thường xuất hiện ở đầu đoạn văn.) * If a passage consists of only one paragraph, you should study the beginning of that paragraph to determine the main idea. (Nếu bài đọc chỉ có một đoạn, ta cần đọc kỹ ở phần đầu để tìm ý chính.) * If a passage consists of more than one paragraph, you should study the beginning of each paragraph to determine the main idea. In a passage with more than one paragraph, you should be sure to read the first sentence of each paragraph to determine the subject, topic, title, or main idea.(Nếu bài đọc có nhiều đoạn, ta cần đọc kỹ ở phần đầu mỗi đoạn để tìm ý chính.) Example: Basketball was invented in 1891 by a physical education instructor in Springfield, Massachusetts, by the name of James Naismith. Because of terrible weather in winter, his physical education students were indoors rather than outdoors. They really did not like the idea of boring, repetitive exercises and preferred the excitement and challenge of a game. Naistmith figured out a team sport that could be played indoors on a gymnasium floor, that involved a lot of running, that kept all team members involved, and that did not allow the tackling and physical contact of American style football. * challenge:n, sự thách thức (to take up/ to accept a challenge). * to figure out: * gymnasium:n, phòng tập thể dục. * tackling: chặn, cản đối phương đang dẫn bóng * physical contact: sự va chạm lẫn nhau ( trong TDTT) What is the topic of this passage? A. The life of James Naismith B. The history of sports C. Physical education and exercise D.The origin of basketball a) How to identify the question: ( Nhận biết câu hỏi tìm ý chính) - What is the topic of the passage? - What is the subject of the passage? - What is the main idea of the passage? - What is the author’s main point in the passage? - With what is the author primarily concerned?

- Which of the following would be the best title? - What is the message to the reader? b) Where to find the answer: ( Tìm câu trả lời ở đâu?) - The answer to this type of question can generally be determined by looking at the first sentence of each paragraph. c) How to answer the question: (Cách/ phương pháp trả lời câu hỏi) 1. Read the first line of each paragraph. (Đọc câu/ dòng đầu mỗi đoạn) 2. Look for a common theme or idea in the first lines. (Tìm ý hoặc chủ đề chung ở các dòng đầu). 3. Passyour eyes quickly over the rest of the passage to check that you have really found the topic sentence(s). (Liếc nhanh các phần còn lại của đoạn văn để xác định là bạn đã tìm ra câu/ các câu chủ đề.) 4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices. (Loại bỏ các đáp án chắc chắn sai và chọn đáp án đúng nhất – PP loại suy.) Example 1: Most of the ice on the Earth, close to 90 percent of it, is covering the surface of the continent Antarctica. It does not snow very much in Antarctica, but whatever snow does fall remains and grows deeper and deeper. In some areas of Antarctica, the ice has perhaps been around for as much as a million years and now is more than two miles deep. * Antarctica, n: cực Nam / * to cover, v: bao, che phủ 1. The main idea of the passage is that A. the Earth is a cold planet B. most of the Earth's ice is found in Antarctica C. it snows more in Antarctica than in any other place on the Earth D. Antarctica is only two miles wide but is 90 percent ice 2. The best title for the passage is A. Snowfall in Antarctica B. The Icy Earth C. The Cold, Cold Snow D. The Causes of Antarctica's Ice Pack Example 2: The extremely hot and humid weather that occurs in the United States in July and August is commonly called the "dog days" of summer. This name comes from the star Sirius, which is known as the Dog Star. Sirius is the brightest visible star, and in the hot summer months it rises in the east at approximately the same time as the Sun. As ancient people saw this star rising with the Sun when the weather was at its hottest, they believed that Sirius was the cause of the additional heat; they believed that this bright star added its heat to the heat of the Sun and that these two together made summer weather so unbearably hot. * Sirius,n: sao Thiên Lang * at the same time as: cùng lúc với * cause of = reason for: nguyên nhân * un(bearable), adj: (không) có thể chịu đựng được. 1. The topic of this passage is A. how dogs like to play during the summer B. the causes of hot and humid weather C. why the hot summer days are known as the "dog days" D. the days that dogs prefer 2. The main idea of this passage is that A. the name for the summer days came from Sirius, the Dog Star B. dogs generally prefer hot summer days C. the hottest days occur in the summer because of the movements of the Sun and stars D. Sirius rises at almost the same time as the Sun during the summer months. Skill 2:STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS

A stated detail question asks about one piece of information in the passage rather than the passage as a whole. The answers to these questions are generally given in order in the passage, and the correct answer is often a restatement of what is given in the passage this means that the correct answer often expresses the same idea as what is written in the passage, but the words are not exactly the same. (Câu hỏi chi tiết thường hỏi một thông tin nào đó đã nhắc đến trong bài. Các câu hỏi nầy thường hỏi theo trật tự trước sau trong đoạn văn và chúng thường được trình bày lại- như chuyển đổi câu- , ví dụ thay vì dùng “ die”, người ta thay bằng “ pass away”) Example: Flutes have been around for quite some time, in all sorts of shapes and sizes and made from a variety of materials. The oldest known flutes are, about 20,000 years old, they were made from hollowed-out bones with holes cut in them. In addition to bone, older flutes were often constructed from bamboo or hollowed-out wood. Today flutes are generally made of metal, and in addition to the holes they have a complicated system of keys, levers, and pads. The instrument belonging to well-known flautist James Galway is not just made of any metal, it is made of gold. * flute,n: ống sáo / * a variety of Ns = many Ns /* hollowed-out bones: những khúc xương rỗng./ * in addition to, prep: = besides: bên cạnh/ * lever,n: đòn bẩy/ * pad,n: miếng đệm, lót. According to the passage, the oldest flutes: A. had holes cut in them B. were made of metal C. were made 200,000 years ago D. had a complicated set of levers and pads Since this question asks about the oldest flutes ( key word), you should see that this question is answered in the second sentence. The passage states that the oldest known fluteswere bones with holes cut in them, so the best answer is A. a) How to identify the question: ( Nhận biết câu hỏi tìm thông tin chi tiết) - Accordingto the passage... - It is stated in the passage... - The passage indicates that... - Which of the following is true...? b) Where to find the answer: ( Tìm câu trả lời ở đâu?) - The answers to the questions are found in order in the passage. c) How to answer the question: (Cách/ phương pháp trả lời câu hỏi) 1. Choose a key word in the question. ( Tìm từ chính/ từ then chốt trong mỗi câu hỏi) 2. Skim in the appropriate part of the passage for the key word or idea.( Đọc lướt xem từ/ ý then chốt nằm chỗ nào trong đoạn văn – thường theo thứ tự trong bài.) 3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully. ( Đọc kỹ câu văn chứa từ / ý then chốt) 4. Eliminate the definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices.(Loại bỏ câu sai, và chọn câu đúng nhất trong số các câu còn lại.- pp loại suy.) Example 1: Many parts of the southwestern United States would become deserts again without the waters of the Colorado River. A system of thousands of miles of canals, hundreds of miles of tunnels and aqueducts, and numerous dams and reservoirs bring Colorado River water to the area. The Imperial Valley in southern California is an example of such a place; it is a vast and productive agricultural area that was once a desert. Today, 2,000 miles of canals irrigate the fertile land and keep it productive. * canal ,n: kênh/ * tunnel ,n: hầm/ * aqueduct ,n: cống dẫn nước/ * dam ,n: đập ngăn nước/ * reservoir ,n: hồ chứa nước/ * agriculture,n - agricultural, adj: nông nghiệp 1. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a way that Colorado River water gets

to the Southwest? A. By truck B. In bottles canals 2. According to the passage, the Imperial Valley A. is a desert today C. produces a lot of agricultural goods

C. In wells

D. Through

B. is located in Colorado D. does not require irrigation

Example 2: The ancestors of humans had a lot more hair than the humans of today; in fact, they had thick hair all over their bodies. This thick hair was necessary for protection against the cold of the Ice Ages. As Earth got warmer, the hair began to thin out, except for onthe head. The head hair has remained through the evolutionary process, both as a sort of pillow to cushion the sensitive head when it gets banged around and as a sort of hat to keep the head warm and prevent so much heat from escaping through the scalp. * To thin (nn) out, v:làm mỏng, làm thưa ra / * evolve, v- evolution, n – evolutionary, adj : tiến hóa/ * scalp, n: da đầu, lớp da đầu./ * cushion n,: cái đệm, nệm – to cushion so/sth (against/ from sth): bảo vệ ai/cái gì (khỏi phải bị...) 1. According to the passage, what happened as the temperature on Earth increased? A. The hair on the head began to thin out. B. The hair on the body remained the same. C. The hair on the body got thicker. D. The hair on the body began to thin out. 2. The author indicates that one of the purposes of hair on the head is to A. fill up pillows B. help heat escape through the scalp C. ensure that the head is warm D .make it easier to think Skill 3: FIND "UNSTATED" DETAILS You will sometimes be asked in the reading section to find an answer that is not stated or not mentioned or not true inthe passage. This type of question really means that three of the answers are stated, mentioned, or true in the passage, while one answer is not. (Trong bài đọc hiểu đa lựa chọn, đôi khi yêu cầu chúng ta tìm những câu mà đoạn văn không đề cập đến, không kể đến cũng như không đúng so với ý chính của đoạn.) Example The Florida Keys area beautiful chain of almost 1,000 coral and limestone islands. These islands form an arc that heads first southwest and then west from the mainland. U.S. Highway 1, called the Overseas Highway, connects the main islands in the chain. On this highway, it is necessary to cross forty-two bridges over the ocean to cover the 159 miles from Miami, on the mainland, to Key West, the farthest island on the highway and the southernmost city in the United States. Which of the following is NOT mentionedabout the Florida Keys? A. The Florida Keys area chain of islands. B. The Florida Keys contain coral and limestone. C. The Florida Keys are in the shape of an arc. D. The Florida Keys are not all inhabited. This question asks for the one answer that is not mentionedabout the Florida Keys. The passage states that the Florida Keys are a chain(answer A) with coral and limestone(answer B) in the shape of an arc(answer C), so these answers are not correct. The best answer is therefore answer D. The passage does not mention whether or not the keys are all inhabited. a) How to identify the question: ( Nhận biết câu hỏi ) - Which of the following is not stated? - Which of the following is not mentioned...?

- Which of the following is not discussed...? - Which of the following is true except... ? b) Where to find the answer: (Tìm câu trả lời ở đâu?) - The answers to these questions are found in order in the passage. c) How to answer the question: (Cách/ phương pháp trả lời câu hỏi) 1. Choose a key word in the question. (Xác định từ then chốt trong câu hỏi.) 2. Scan the appropriate place in the passage for the key word (or related idea). (Liếc nhanh đến chỗ có chứa key word hoặc có liên quan về ý trong đoạn văn.) 3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully.(Đọc kỹ câu có chứa từ hoặc ý chính.) 4.Look for answers that are definitely trueaccording to the passage; eliminate thoseanswers. (Tìm những câu đúng và loại chúng.) 5. Choose the answer that is not true or not discussed in the passage. (Chọn câu trả lời không đúng hoặc không được bàn đến trong đoạn văn.) Example 1: Blood pressure measurement has two components: systolic and diastolic. Systolic pressure is taken when the heart is contracting to pump blood; diastolic pressure is taken when the heart is resting between beats. In the usual blood pressure reading, the systolic measurement is given first and is the higher of the two. Normal blood pressure is a systolic measurement of 140, and when the systolic pressure is 160 or higher, then hypertension exists. Systolic pressure between 140 and 160 indicates borderline hypertension. * systolic * diastolic * hypertension, n: chứng cao huyết áp/ * borderline, n: ở ngưỡng mấp mé. 1. Which of the following is NOT true about systolic blood pressure? A. It is taken during the contraction of the heart. B. It is usually given first in a blood pressure reading. C. A normal systolic measurement is 140. D .Hypertension exists when the systolic pressure is below 140. 2. Which of the following is NOT stated about diastolic pressure? A. It is one of the two components of blood pressure measurement. B. It is taken when the heart is resting. C .It is lower than systolic pressure. D. A diastolic measurement of 140 is normal. Example 2: In the 1960s, as space travel was becoming a subject of much discussion, Pan American Airlines began receiving some fairly unusual requests for flight information. People began making requests to be on the first flight that Pan Am made to the Moon. On a whim, Pan Am started a waiting list for the first flight to the Moon. Similar requests have come to Pan Am over the years, and Pan Am has responded by adding the names of the requesters to the list. Unfortunately for Pan Am, the original company is no longer in business, and it never got to the Moon. However, when it went out of business, it had a waiting list of more than 90,000 names for its first lunar flight. * whim, n: việc làm, ý muốn bất chợt, thất thường. 1. All of the following are mentioned about Pan American Airlines, EXCEPT that A. it started business in the 1960s B. it received requests for its first flight to the Moon C. it kept some people on a long waiting list D .it went out of business 2. Which of the following is NOT true about Pan Am's Moon flights? A. People asked Pan Am about its flights to the Moon.

B. Pan Am kept a waiting list for its Moon flights. C. Pan Am never really made any Moon flights. D. Pan Am's waiting list had only a few names on Skill 4: IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTIONS In this type of question, you will be asked to answer a multiple choice question about a reading passage by drawing a conclusion from a specific detail or details in the passage. Questions of this type contain the words implied, inferred, likely, or probablyto let you know that the answer to the question is not directly stated. In this type of question, it is important to understand that you do not have to "pull the answer out of thin air." Instead, some information will be given in the passage, and you will draw a conclusion from that information. (Loại câu hỏi nầy yêu cầu bạn chọn phương án trả lời mà bạn phải suy luận có lý từ một hay nhiều chi tiết trong bài, dĩ nhiên người ta không trực tiếp nói ra vấn đề mà bạn quan tâm.) Example 1: The number of rings in a tree can be used to determine how old a tree really is. Each year a tree produces a ring that is composed of one light-colored wide band and one dark-colored narrow band. The wider band is produced during the spring and early summer when tree stem cells grow rapidly and become larger. The narrower band is produced in fall and early winter when cell growth is much slower and cells do not get very large. No cells are produced during the harsh winter and summer months. It is implied in the passage that if a tree has 100 wide bands and 100 narrow bands, then it is: A. a century old B. two centuries old C. fifty years old D. two hundred years old This question asks about the age of a tree with 100 wide bandsand 100 narrow bands. The passage does not tell the age of a tree with 100 wide and narrow bands, but it does indicate that....widebandand one......narrowbandare produced each year. From this, you can draw the conclusion that a tree with 100 wide and narrow bands is 100 years, or a centuryold. The best answer to this question is therefore answer A. a) How to identify the question: (Nhận biết câu hỏi ) - It is implied in the passage that...... - It can be inferred from the passage that - It is most likely that...... - What probably happened ? b) Where to find the answer: (Tìm câu trả lời ở đâu?) The answers to these questions are generally found in order in the passage. c) How to answer the question: (Cách/ phương pháp trả lời câu hỏi) 1. Choose a key word in the question. (Chọn từ then chốt) 2. Scan the passage for the key word (or a related idea). (Đọc nhanh đoạn văn để xác định từ/ ý then chốt nằm ở đâu.) 3. Carefully read the sentence that contains the key word. (Đọc kỹ câu văn có chứa từ/ ý then chốt.) 4. Look for an answer that could be true, according to that sentence. (Tìm câu trả lời phù hợp theo đoạn văn.) Example 2: Until 1996, the Sears Tower was the tallest building in the world, with more than a hundred stories. It is located in Chicago, whose nickname is the Windy City. The combination of a very tall building in a city with such weather conditions leads to a lot of swaying in the breeze. On a windy day, the top of the building can move back and forth as Much as three feet every few seconds. The inside doors at the top of the building open and close, and water in

sinks sloshes back and forth. 1. The Sears Tower is probably A. as tall as the Empire State Building B. no longer the tallest building in the world C. taller than any other building D. still the highest building in the world 2. It can be inferred from the passage that Chicago A. has moderate weather B. is generally warm C. has humid weather D. usually has a lot of wind 3. It is implied in the passage that the upper-level doors in the Sears Tower open and close because A. the building was poorly constructed B. people go in and out so often C. the building moves in the wind D. there is water in the sinks. Example 3: The most common last name in the English-speaking world is Smith, which was taken from the job of working with metals. A silversmith, for example, is someone who works with the metal silver. Historical records indicate that the use of this last name is at least 700 years old. Today, there are more than 3.3 million Smiths living in the United States and perhaps another million Smiths living in other English-speaking countries worldwide, 1. It canbe inferred fromthe passage that family names A. were always taken from the area where a family lived B. were short names C. had little or no meaning D. could be taken from jobs 2. Which of the following isimpliedabout the Smith family name? A. It is definitely not more than 700 years old. B. It existed 600 years ago. C. It did not exist 500 years ago. D. It definitely was not in use 1,000 years ago. 3. In England there areprobably A. more Smiths than there are in the United States B. more than a million Smiths C. fewer than a million Smiths D. no families with the name of Smith Example 4: On the hardness scale, corundum immediately follows diamond, which is the hardest mineral in the world. Corundum is perhaps better known by the names of its gemstones, ruby and sapphire. Basically, gem corundum is divided into two groups: corundum that is red in color is called ruby, and corundum that is any other color is called sapphire. Pure corundum is clear, but pure corundum is rarely found in nature. If small amounts of the chemical substance chromic oxide (Cr20 3) got into the crystal structure when it formed millions of years ago, then the corundum turned a deep, rich red and became ruby. Red is not the only color that corundum can take on. Other chemical substances enter into the crystal structure of corundum, and it can take on a variety of other colors. Most people associate blue with sapphires, and certainly when corundum contains impurities that turn it blue, it is called sapphire. However, corundum can have a variety of other colors e.g., green or purple-and still be called sapphire. * corundum,n: [u] một khoáng chất kết tinh, cứng : / * crystal structure: 1. It can be inferred from the passage that corundum is A. the hardest mineral in the world B. not as hard as sapphire C. the second hardest mineral D. a rather soft mineral 2.Chromic oxide is probably what color? A. Clear B. Blue C. Red D. Green 3. Yellow corundum is most likely called A. gold B. chromic oxide C. ruby D. sapphire PHẦN V:

BÀI TẬP THAM KHẢO BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC (Đề có 05 trang)

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mã đề thi 401 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to incorrect answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34. Tribal tourism is a relatively new type of tourism. It involves travellers going to remote destinations, staying with local people and learning about their culture and way of life. They stay in local accommodation, share facilities with local people, and join in with meals and celebrations. At the moment, less than one percent of holidays are tribal tourism holidays, but this is set to change. Tribal tourism is often compared with foreign exchange visits. However a foreign exchange involves staying with people who often share the same values. Tribal tourism takes visitors to places where the lifestyle is very different from that in their home location. Those who have been to a tribal holiday explain that experiencing this lifestyle is the main attraction. They say that it offers them the chance to live in a way they never have before. Not everyone is convinced that tribal tourism is a good thing, and opinions are divided. The argument is about whether or not ithelps the local population, or whether it exploits them. The main problem is that, because tribal tourism is relatively new, the long-term influences on local populations have not been studied in much detail. Where studies have been carried out, the effects have been found to be negative. So is it possible to experience an exotic culture without harming it in some way? “With a bit of thought, we can maximise the positive influences and minimise the negative,” says travel company director Hilary Waterhouse. “The most important thing for a tribal tourist is to show respect for, learn about, and be aware of, local customs and traditions. Always remember you’re a guest.” (Adapted from "Complete ỊELTS"by Rawdon Wyatt) 30: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. An Old Tourist Destination B. Holidays with a Difference C. Different Customs of a Tribe D. Peak Holiday Seasons 31: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to_______. A.travellers B. facilities C. local people D.remote destinations 32: According to paragraph 2, what is the main attraction of tribal tourism? A. Tourists can stay with people of the same values. B. Tourists can interact with other foreign visitors. C. Tourists can experience a different lifestyle. D. Tourists can explore beauty spots in remote areas. 33: The word “divided” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to . A. similar B. important C. different D. interesting 34: According to Hilary Waterhouse, the most important thing for a tribal tourist is to_______. A. forget about negative experiences B. respect local customs and traditions C.learn about other guests D.be accompanied by other travellers Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. E-waste is being produced on a scale never seen before. Computers and other electronic equipment become obsolete in just a few years, leaving customers with little choice but to buy newer ones to keep up. Millions of tons of computers, TVs, smartphones, and other equipment are

discarded each year. In most countries, all this waste ends up in landfills, where it poisons the environment - e-waste contains many toxic substances such as lead, mercury, and arsenic that leak into the ground. Recycling is the ideal solution to the problem. E-waste contains significant amounts of valuable metals like gold and silver that make it attractive to recycle. In theory, recycling gold from old computers is more efficient - and less environmentally destructive - than digging it from the earth. The problem is that a large percentage of e-waste dropped off for recycling in wealthy countries is sold and diverted to the developing world, posing an increasing threat to the health of the people there. To address the problem of the international trade in e-waste, 170 nations signed the 1989 Basel Convention, an agreement requiring that developed nations notify developing nations of hazardous waste shipments coming into their countries. Then, in 1995 the Basel Convention was modified to ban hazardous waste shipments to poor countries completely. Although the ban hasn’t taken effect the European Union, where recycling infrastructure is well developed, has already written it into their laws. One law holds manufacturers responsible for the safe disposal of electronics they produce. Companies like Creative Recycling Systems in Florida, the USA, are hoping to profit from clean e-waste recycling. The key to their business is a huge, building-size machine able to separate electronic products into their component materials. As the machine’s steel teeth break up e-waste, all the toxic dust is removed from the process. This machine can handle some 70,000 tons of electronics a year. Although this is only a fraction of the tota1, it wouldn’t take many more machines like this to process the entire USA’s output of high-tech trash. Unfortunately, under current policies, domestic processing of e-waste is not compulsory, and while shipping waste abroad is ethically questionable, it is still more profitable than processing it safely in the USA. Creative Recycling Systems is hoping that the US government will soon create laws deterring people from sending e-waste overseas. (Adapted from "Reading explorer 4” by Paul MacIntyre and Nancy Hubley) 35: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Waste Recycling: A Storm in a Teacup B. Domestic Recycling: Pros and Cons C. E-waste - An Export Commodity of the Future D. E-waste - A Mess to Clear up 36: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______. A. outdated B. inaccurate C. broken D. incomplete 37: As stated in paragraph 2, a large percentage of e-waste meant for recycling in the developed countries_______. A. is buried deep in the soil at landfills B. contains all valuable metals except gold C. is later recycled in local factories D. is eventually sent to developing nations 38: The word “notify" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. assure B. notice C. excuse D. inform 39: The word ‘it’ in paragraph 3 refers to _______. A. the ban B. recycling infrastructure C. the European Union D. the Basel Convention 40: According to the European Union’s law, electronics manufacturers are required to_______. A. upgrade their recycling infrastructure regularly B. sell their e-waste to developed nations only C. sign the Basel Convention D. take responsibility for disposing of their products safely 41: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage? A. The USA’s total e-waste output amounts to 70,000 tons per year. B. Creative Recycling Systems has made a fortune from their recycling machine. C. The Basel Convention originally banned the import of high-tech trash into European countries. D. Shipping e-waste abroad yields greater profit than recycling it safely in the USA.

42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Most countries have made enormous efforts to manage their e-waste exports. B. Legislative action is fundamental to solving the problem of e-waste effectively. C. Strict laws against sending e-waste abroad have recently been upheld in Florida. D. Developing nations benefit more from the trade in e-waste than their developed counterparts MỘT SỐ ĐỀ THAM KHẢO I. Đề thi KSCL LẦN I SGDVP Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 12 to 19. A folk culture is small, isolated, cohesive, conservative, nearly self-sufficient group that is homogeneous in custom and race, with a strong family or community structure and highly developed rituals. Order is maintained through approvals based in the religion or family, and interpersonal relationships are strong. Tradition is paramount, and change comes infrequently and slowly. There is relatively little division of labor into specialized duties. Rather, each person is expected to perform a large number of tasks, though they may differ between the sexes. Most goods are handmade, and a subsistence economy prevails. Individualism is weakly developed in folk cultures, as are social classes. Unaltered folk cultures no longer exist in industrialized countries such as the United States and Canada. Perhaps the nearest modern equivalent in Anglo-America is the Amish, a German American farming community that largely rejects the products and labor saving devices of the industrial age. In Amish areas, horse-drawn buggies still serve as a local transportation device, and the faithful are not permitted to own automobiles. The Amish’s central religious concept of modesty clearly reflects the weakness of individualism and social class so typical of folk cultures, and there is a corresponding strength of Amish group identity. Rarely do the Amish marry outside their community. The religion, a variety of the Mennonite faith, provides the principal mechanism for maintaining order. By contrast, a popular culture is a large heterogeneous group, often highly individualistic and constantly changing. Relationships tend to be impersonal, and a obvious division of labor exists, leading to the establishment of many specialized professions. Secular institutions of control such as the police and army take the place of religion and family in maintaining order, and a moneybased economy prevails. Because of these contrasts, “popular” may be viewed as clearly different from “folk”. The popular is replacing the folk in industrialized countries and in many developing nations. Folk- made objects give way to their popular equivalents, usually because the popular item is more quickly or cheaply produced, is easier or time-saving to use, or lends more prestige to the owner. Câu 12: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The characteristics of “folk” and “popular” societies. B. The influence of industrial technology. C. Two decades in modern society. D. The specialization of labor in Canada and the United States. Câu 13: The word “paramount” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______. A. questionable B. important C. optional D. interesting Câu 14: The word “prevails” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by _______. A. provides B. invests C. develops D. dominates Câu 15: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to _______. A. individuals B. divisions of labour C. persons D. tasks Câu 16: Which of the following is typical of folk cultures? A. Contact with other cultures is encouraged. B. Social change occurs slowly. C. There is a money-based economy. D. Each person develops one specialized skill.

Câu 17: Which of the following statements about Amish beliefs does the passage support? A. People are defined according to their class. B. Pre-modern technology is preferred. C. Individualism and competition are important. D. A variety of religious practices are tolerated. Câu 18: Which of following is NOT given as a reason why folk-made objects are replaced by mass-produced objects? A. cost B. convenience C. quality D. prestige Câu 19: What does the author imply about the United States and Canada? A. They have no social classes. B. They have popular cultures. C. They value folk cultures. D. They do not value individualism. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. If you were going to choose a job that involves travel, what would be your first choice? There are many jobs available today that give people opportunities to travel. Although many traveling careers sound fantastic, they also have disadvantages. Being an au pair is an excellent way not only to go to different countries, but to live in different places around the world and really get a feel for the culture. Au pairs live with the families they are placed with and take care of children. Many parents include au pairs in family events and vacations, so they experience many aspects of the new culture while on the job. However, many of the activities are centered around the children, so they may not get to experience many things that interest adults. For people who want a bit more freedom working abroad, being an English teacher may be a good choice. There are English teaching jobs in almost all countries in the world. People teaching English in other countries often have a chance to travel on the weekends around the country. One drawback is that many teachers often wind up hanging out with other English teachers, and they don’t have time to learn the country’s language. The nickname “roadie” implies that this job involves life on the road. Roadies are people who work and travel with bands and provide technical support. Roadies can be lighting and stage crew who set up the stage and break it down before and after events. They can also be technicians helping band members with their instruments. International tours take a band’s crew to cities around the world, often requiring air travel. However, the crew doesn’t get much time off, so they may travel to several countries without seeing much besides concert venues and hotels. Similarly, flight attendants often travel to cities around the world, but they don’t see much besides the inside of airplanes and hotels. However, when they do have time off, they can often fly at no cost, and their family members can sometimes fly free as well. It is widely thought that a flight attendant job is glamorous, but flight attendants must deal with travel hassles, as well as security issues. All jobs gave advantages and disadvantages whether or not you travel for work, so if you have the travel bug, keep these jobs in mind for the future. Câu 44: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Disadvantages of traveling jobs B. Jobs with opportunities to travel C. Traveling to and from work D. Jobs involving traveling by planes Câu 45: The word “glamorous” in paragraph 5 is closet in meaning to _______. A. skilled B. attractive C. permanent D. challenging Câu 46: The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to _______? A. instruments B. bands C. roadies D. events Câu 47: Which of the following is a disadvantage of the job as an au pair? A. They may live in different places around the world. B. They will experience many interesting things. C. Most of their activities are centered around children. D. They can experience many aspects of the new culture.

Câu 48: How is a flight attendant’s job similar to a roadie’s? A. They provide technical support. B. A lot of time is spent indoors. C. Family members may not have to pay for flights. D. They must deal with travel hassles. Câu 49: Which of the following is something a roadie might do? A. Set up the lights for a performance. B. Clean hotel rooms after the band and crew have left. C. Work on the road. D. Play the guitar in front of a large audience. Câu 50: It can be inferred from the passage that _______. A. people who want to travel are more likely to get a job B. traveling careers have more disadvantages than many other C. it’s essential that the job you choose have more benefits than drawbacks D. English teachers abroad don’t know the language of the country where they work II. Đề thi KSCL LẦN II SGDVP Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C and D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 12 to 19. The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive Seven Wonders of the World. Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle Sap, the largest freshwater lake in Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire from the ninth to the fifteenth century. The ruins of Angkor are documented as some of the most impressive ones in the world, rivaling the pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out is a question that archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may be linked with the availability of fresh water. One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the inhabitants’ irrigation system. The temples and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a series of artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually flooded to capacity by the Mekong River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding rice paddies and farmland during the course of the year. Farmers were completely dependent upon the water for their crucial rice crop. Without consistent irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to maintain functional crop production. Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic systems of the reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and palaces required an enormous amount of physical labor. In addition, as the capital of the Khmer Empire, Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who resided in and around Angkor. In order to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food quicker and more efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed beyond its capacity. Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and the loss of water led to decrease in the food supply. With less food available, the people of Angkor slowly began to migrate to other parts of Cambodia thus leaving the marvelous city of Angkor to be swallowed by the jungle. Therefore, it is speculated that the Khmer Empire may have fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructure. Câu 12: What is the passage mainly about? A. Modern day agricultural procedures in Cambodia. B. The essential role water plays in farming. C. Religious temples of the ancient Khmer Empire. D. A possible explanation for the decline of a civilization. Câu 13: The word “artificial” in the paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______. A. numerous B. natural C. insincere D. man-made Câu 14: The word “decrepit” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. A. deteriorated B. beneficial C. disorganized D. incomplete

Câu 15: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______. A. rice paddies B. reservoirs and canals C. temples and palaces D. farmland Câu 16: All the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT______. A. reduction of nutrients B. loss of water supply C. contamination of soil D. erosion of soil Câu 17: The passage preceding this passage most likely discusses ______. A. the other six wonders of the world B. religious practices of the people of Angkor C. the form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire D. architecture of ancient Asian civilization Câu 18: Why does the author mention the hydraulic systems of the reservoirs? A. They were destroyed by nearby warrior tribes. B. They helped transport the sandstones for constructing temples. C. They became non-functional due to overuse. D. They supplied irrigation from the Indian Ocean. Câu 19: It can be inferred from the passage that the inhabitants of the Khmer Empire ______. A. lost their food source due to excess rainfall B. supplemented their diets with meat hunted in the nearby jungles C. depended upon rice as their main source of food D. were intentionally starved by the farmers Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C and D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. Ocean Currents and the Turning of the Tide If you take a seat at the beach and look out across the water, you’ll soon notice that oceans have a rhythm of their own. Throughout the course of the day, sea levels will rise and fall, and water will flow through routes and end up in different places. But how does it all work? One force at play is tides, which are the alternating water levels of the ocean. There are two major gravitational forces which cause tides: the sun and the moon. The moon’s force has a tugging effect on oceans which causes them to bulge outwards on opposite sides of the planet. Solar tides operate according to the same principles. However, they are only about 50 percent as strong due to the distance between the sun and the earth. As tides rise and fall, they create tidal currents. The strongest tidal currents occur at the height of both high and low tides. Unlike other currents, they do not flow in a continuous stream. Far from shore, tidal currents don’t have much of an effect. Yet when they pass through narrow area, like harbours and bays, tidal currents can displace plants, animals, and sediment. Although they may certainly shake things up, not all of the damage is negative. Tidal currents can spread fish eggs across long distances to assist fertilization, in addition to transporting key nutrients. Another category of currents is ocean currents. These currents occur near the top of the water, and are mainly powered by the wind. One example of these is coastal currents, which are those beachgoers encounter when going for a swim. One of the strongest and most well-known currents is the Gulf Stream, which brings warm water from the Gulf of Mexico all the way to Western Europe. Meanwhile, Deep Ocean currents are a powerful force in the depths of oceans. The strongest of these has been nicknamed the global conveyor belt, and it moves much slower than surface currents. Although we can’t see it in operation, it’s about 16 times as powerful as all the earth’s rivers put together. As the global conveyor belt pushes water around the planet, it carries nutrition and carbon dioxide to places that truly need them. In the end, although there are several currents working on oceans simultaneously, they each seem to perform a necessary function that creates balance for life in the sea. Câu 44: What might be another good title for the passage? A. The Secrets behind the Seas B. The Pollution of the World’s Oceans C. The Wonderful Sea of Dreams D. The Dangers of Ocean Currents

Câu 45: The word “displace” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________. A. destroy B. bury C. move D. keep Câu 46: The word “these” in paragraph 4 refers to________. A. Deep Ocean currents B. the Gulf Stream currents C. the depths of oceans D. forces to cause ocean currents Câu 47: How do moon tides different from solar tides? A. They only occur during the nighttime. B. They operate using different principles. C. They occur less frequently than solar tides. D. They are stronger than solar tides. Câu 48: The most powerful tidal currents occur________. A. when tides are low and high B. when it is a windy day C. when tides are low D. when tides are high Câu 49: What happens when tidal currents pass through harbours and bays? A. They kill lots of plants and fish. B. They destroy many towns. C. They transport things around. D. They always cause negative events. Câu 50: What can be inferred from the passage? A. There are ocean currents which are more powerful than the global conveyor belt. B. The moon’s force has the same effect on oceans on the opposite sides of the earth. C. Ocean currents play a role in creating life balance in the sea. D. People in Western Europe may see the Gulf Stream. III. Đề thi KSCL LẦN II SGDVP Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 12 to 19. What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States roughly coincides in its northern portions with the geographic province known as the Great Basin. The Great Basin is surrounded on the west by the Sierra Nevada and on the east by the Rocky Mountains; it has no outlet to the sea. The prevailing winds in the Great Basin are from the west. Warm, moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it crosses the Sierra Nevada. At the higher altitudes it cools and the moisture it carries is precipitated as rain or snow on the western slopes of the mountains. That which reaches the Basin is air wrung dry of moisture. What little water falls there as rain or snow, mostly in the winter months, evaporates on the broad, flat desert floors. It is, therefore, an environment in which organism battle for survival. Along the rare watercourses, cottonwoods and willows eke out a sparse existence. In the upland ranges, pinion pines and junipers struggle to hold their own. But the Great Basin has not always been so arid. Many of its dry, closed depressions were once filled with water. Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley were once a string of interconnected lakes. The two largest of the ancient lakes of the Great Britain were Lake Lahontan and Lake Bonneville. The Great Salt Lake is all that remains of the latter, and Pyramid Lake is one of the last briny remnants of the former. There seem to have been several periods within the last tens of thousands of years when water accumulated in these basins. The rise and fall of the lakes were undoubtedly linked to the advances and retreats of the great ice sheets that covered much of the northern part of the North American continent during those times. Climatic changes during the Ice Ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter weather to mid-latitude deserts worldwide, including those of the Great Basin. The broken valleys of the Great Basin provided ready receptacles for this moisture. Câu 12: What is the geographical relationship between the Basin and Range Province and the Great Basin? A. The Great Basin is mountainous; the Basin and Range Province is flat desert. B. The Great Basin is larger than the Basin and Range Province. C. The Great Basin is west of the Basin and Range Province. D. The Great Basin is in the northern part of the Basin and Range Province.

Câu 13: According to the passage, what does the Great Basin lack? A. Dry air B. Access to the ocean C. Snow D. Winds from the west Câu 14: The word “prevailing” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______. A. occasional B. most dangerous C. gentle D. most frequent Câu 15: It can be inferred that the climate in the Great Basin is dry because ______. A. the weather patterns are so turbulent B. the altitude prevents precipitation C. the winds are not strong enough to carry moisture D. precipitation falls in the nearby mountains Câu 16: Why does the author mention Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley in the second paragraph? A. To compare the characteristics of the valleys with the characteristics of the lakes. B. To give examples of depressions that once contained water. C. To explain their geographical formation. D. To explain what the Great Britain is like today. Câu 17: The word “the former” in paragraph 2 refer to______. A. Pyramid Lake B. Lake Lahontan C. The Great Salt Lake D. Lake Bonneville Câu 18: The word “accumulated”in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. A. flooded B. dried C. collected D. evaporated Câu 19: According to the passage, the Ice Ages often brought about ______. A. broken valley B. wetter weather C. warmer climates D. desert formation Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. There are more than two hundred varieties of sausage that differ according to the meat, the fineness of the chopping or grinding, the seasonings used, and the processing method (smoking, cooking, drying) employed. Per capita sausage consumption in the United States is now an astounding eleven kilograms a year, with the ubiquitous frankfurter, or wiener, accounting for about thirty percent of the total. The frankfurter (after the German city) is better known in the United States as the “hot dog, ” especially when in its traditional presentation in a long bread bun, and so popular is it that fourteen billion are eaten every year in the United States, equivalent to sixty for every man, woman, and child in the country – including vegetarians. The contents are strictly governed by law, with the USDA requiring manufacturers to use muscle meat. In fact, heart, liver, and kidney may also be used but only if this is openly stated. Contents must be eighty-five percent meat, ten percent water, and 2. 5 percent salt, with the remainder comprising spices and preservatives. Casings were traditionally made from animal intestines, but now ninety percent of the hot dogs consumed are skinless. And how did the American culinary delight originate? As with so many brilliant inventions, the answer is “almost by accident”. At the St. Loius Exposition of 1904 customers wanted to be able to eat while walking about, and vendors provided them with white cotton gloves to eat with. After the sausages had been eaten, they expected the gloves to be returned, but the customers did not oblige. So the vendors began serving the frankfurters in special bread buns. The idea caught on, and, ever since, the hot dog, served with all kinds of extras (mustard, ketchup, relish, onions, cheese, chili con carne, sauerkraut, …), has remained particularly welcome at ourdoor events such as picnics, barbecues, and, above all, baseball games. Câu 44: According to the passage, ______. A. there are over two hundred kinds of meat in sausages

B. the average American consumes eleven kilograms of frankfurters annually C. not all types of sausage are cooked D. “wiener” is the content of a frankfurter Câu 45: The word “seasonings” in line 2 is closest in meaning to ______. A. colors B. condiments C. ingredients D. procedures Câu 46: The main theme of the second paragraph is ______. A. frankfurter traditions B. the popularity of frankfurters C. United States frankfurter facts D. laws governing the sale and contents of frankfurters Câu 47: Why does the author add the phrase “including vegetarians” in paragraph 2? A. To suggest that the average for others is even higher. B. To warn vegetarians against the dangers of frankfurters. C. To indicate that frankfurters are eaten by vegetarians. D. To show that some men, women, and children in the USA are vegetarians. Câu 48: It may be inferred that the proportion of spices and preservatives is ______. A. 97. 5% B. 25% C. 12. 5% D. 2. 5% Câu 49: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. vendors B. cotton gloves C. customers D. sausages Câu 50: Why did vendors introduce frankfurters in bread buns in 1904? A. The buns were traditional at outdoor events. B. The customers asked for them in bread buns. C. The buns could hold all of the extras plus the hot dog. D. The customers did not return the vendors’ white gloves. IV. Đề thi KSCL LẦN II SGDVP Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 12 to 19. The observation of the skies has played a special part in the lives and cultures of peoples since the earliest of times. Evidence obtained from a site known as the Hole in the Rock, in Papago Park in Phoenix, Arizona, indicates that it might have been used as an observatory by prehistoric people known as the Hohokam. The physical attributes of the site allow its use as a natural calendar/clock. The “hole” at Hole in the Rock is formed by two large overhanging rocks coming together at a point, creating a shelter with an opening large enough for several persons to pass through. The northeast-facing overhang has a smaller hole in its roof. It is this smaller hole that produces the attributes that may have been used as a calendar/clock. Because of its location in the shelter’s roof, a beam of sunlight can pass through this second hole and cast a spot onto the shelter’s wall and floor. This spot of light travels from west to east as the sun moves across the sky. It also moves from north to south and back again as the Earth travels around the Sun. The west-to-east movement could have been used to establish a daily clock, much like a sundial, while the north-to-south movement could have been used to establish a seasonal calendar. The spot first appears and starts down the surface of the wall of the shelter at different times of the morning depending on the time of the year. The spot grows in size from its first appearance until its maximum size is achieved roughly at midday. It then continues its downward movement until it reaches a point where it jumps to the floor of the shelter. As the Sun continues to move to the west, the spot continues to move across the shelter floor and down the butte, or hill, toward a group of small rocks. If a person is seated on a certain one of these rocks as the spot reaches it, the Sun can be viewed through the calendar hole. This occurs at different times in the afternoon depending on the time of year.

Câu 12: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Observation of the stars by ancient people B. Rock formation of Arizona C. The movement of the Earth around the Sun D. A site used by ancient people to measure time Câu 13: The word “attributes” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______. A. changes B. locations C. characteristics D. dimensions Câu 14: The word “roughly” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______. A. finally B. harshly C. uneasily D. approximately Câu 15: The word “its” in paragraph 3 refers to _______. A. beam B. hole C. roof D. spot Câu 16: Which of the following is NOT true about the spot of light? A. Its movement is affected by the position of the Sun. B. Its movement could have been used to estimate the time of day. C. It travels across the roof of the shelter. D. It is caused by sunlight passing through a hole. Câu 17: From which of the following can the time of year be determined? A. The size of the spot of light at midday B. The movement of the spot of light west to east C. The speed with which the spot of light moves D. The movement of the spot of light north to south Câu 18: The passage mentions that the Hole in the Rock was used as all of the following EXCEPT _______. A. a clock B. an observatory C. a home D. a calendar Câu 19: Which of the following can be inferred from the fourth paragraph? A. After it passes the rocks, the spot of light disappears. B. The spot of light is largest when it first appears. C. The rocks are located below the shelter. D. The person seated on the rock cannot see the shelter. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. In today’s world, it seems like everyone is focused on “the big picture”. However, coming up with large-scale solutions is not always what is needed. Sometimes it pays to think small - and that is exactly what many people are doing these days. By thinking small, lots of big minds have created some pretty amazing things. One example of this is microloans. Microloans are tiny loans, in some cases just a few dollars, which are available to people in developing countries. Although this may not seem like a lot of money, microloans can help workers to escape poverty and start their own businesses. The person behind the modern microloan movement is a Bangladeshi man named Muhammad Yunus. He started the project in the 1970s by offering villagers low-interest loans using his own money. Yunus wanted to offer poor people access to small loans so they wouldn’t be forced to turn to gangsters if they needed funds. In 1983, he founded the Grameen Bank and soon after, similar organizations started popping up around the globe. Although there are still some issues with microloans, at the very least they offer everyone the potential of becoming an entrepreneur. For most of the 20th century, companies required large sums of money and plenty of manpower to compete at the highest levels. In the late 1990s, the Internet changed this and many microenterprises came about. Microenterprises are smaller companies that employ less than 10 people and only require small sums of money to start. Being small offers lots of flexibility to these companies as they can react more quickly than corporate giants when a business opportunity arises. Many technology companies that produce mobile apps and websites fall into this category. Keep in mind that having a small staff doesn’t mean small profits, as microenterprises can earn hundreds of millions of dollars per year.

Thinking small can also lead to a tremendous improvement in quality. One example of this is microbreweries, which are smaller-sized breweries that produce far less beer than traditional breweries. Since microbreweries don’t have to target large markets and make millions of sales to stay open, they can monitor the brewing process carefully to make sure everything is perfect. In addition, microbreweries can experiment with unique flavours that many traditional brewers would shy away from. So the next time you are asked to “think big”, remember that good things may also come in small packages. Câu 44: What is the best title for the passage ? A. Microtrends: It's a Small World After All B. Microloans and Microbreweries C. Microbreweries: It has a tremendous improvement D. Microloans: It saves farmers’ lives Câu 45: What could best replace the phrase “popping up” in paragraph 2? A. discovering B. disappearing C. opening D. complaining Câu 46: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. A. people who need loans B. gangsters C. friends of Yunus D. those who work at banks Câu 47: The type of businesses which is most interested in microloans may be _______. A. companies that require plenty of well qualified manpower B. companies with plenty of business opportunities C. small companies that employ more than 100 people D. the software companies producing mobile apps and websites Câu 48: What advantages do small companies have over larger corporations? A. They can make faster decisions. B. They have more people working for them. C. They usually have more money. D. They don’t have to pay any taxes. Câu 49: All of the following are true about microloans EXCEPT that________. A. its original ideas were initiated by a Bangladeshi man named Muhammad Yunus B. so many banks offering small loans started appearing all over the world C. they are often offered to poor local people D. they are tiny loans, maybe just a few dollars Câu 50: We can infer from paragraph 2 that thanks to microloans from the Grameen Bank, poor local people can _______ . A. borrow money without any interest B. cooperate to open large businesses C. put gangsters offering big loans into prison D. avoid borrowing money with very high interest V. Đề thi KSCL LẦN III THPT NTG Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34. David Beckham is an English footballer who has played for Manchester United and Real Madrid, as well as representing his country 100 times. He moved to the Los Angeles Galaxy in 2007 to increase the profile of football in America. He married Spice Girl Victoria Beckham and has become a worldwide celebrity, an advertising brand and a fashion icon. Beckham was born in London in 1975. His parents were fanatical Manchester United supporters. His talent was obvious from an early age and he signed with Manchester United on his fourteenth birthday. He helped the youth team win several trophies and made his first team debut in 1995. He helped his team achieve considerable success in his eleven seasons with them. Beckham has been runner-up twice as world football’s best player. He won many trophies with Manchester United, including the Champion League, and won a league title with Real Madrid. He

also captained his club and country. He was famously sent off in a match against (Argentina in the 1998 World Cup. In 2003, Beckham received an honor for services to football from Britain's Queen. Beckham has many interests off the soccer pitch and is rarely out of the headlines, especially concerning his marriage and children. He has established football academies in Los Angeles and London. In 2006 he was named a judge for the British Book Awards. He lives near Tom Cruise and the two are best buddies. Beckham is also a United Nations Goodwill Ambassador. (Source:https://www.famouspeoplelessons.com) Câu 30:What is the main idea of the passage? A. Beckham's life before and after getting married B. The life and career of David Beckham C. Beckham's marriage with a Spice Girl's member D. Beckham's family background Câu 31:According to the passage, Beckham has played 100 times for_________ . A. Real Madrid B. Manchester United C. the national team of America D. The national team of England Câu 32:The word "fanatical" is closest in meaning to______________. A. idealistic B. realistic C. inspired D. enthusiastic Câu 33:When did Beckham receive the royal award for his contribution to football? A. In 2006 B. In 1995 C. In 2003 D. In 1998 Câu 34:Which of the following is NOT mentioned about Beckham? A. He contributed to the success of the youth team of the Manchester United. B. He was voted one of the best football players of the world more than once. C. Some of Beckham's interests are not related to football. D. He made England lose the match against Argentina in the 1998 World Cup. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. Robots are useful for exploring and working in space. In particular, many robots have been sent to explore Mars. Such robots have usually looked like a box with wheels. Though these robots are useful, by their very nature they are unreliable, extremely expensive, and they break easily. Also, they cannot do very many tasks. Because of these problems, scientists have been developing a new and unusual kind of robot. These new robots move like snakes, so they have been given the name “ Snakebots.” The way a snake is shaped lets it get into very small spaces, like cracks in rocks. It can also push its way below the ground or climb up different kinds of objects, like high rocks and trees. Such abilities account for the usefulness of a robot designed like a snake. A snakebot would be able to do these things, too, making it much more effective than regular robots with wheels, which easily get stuck or fall over. Since they can carry tools, snakebots would be able to work in space, as well. They could, for example, help repair the International Space Station. But how can such a robot shape be made? A snakebot is built like a chain made of about thirty parts, or modules. Each module is basically the same in that they all have a small computer and a wheel to aid movement. The large computer in the “head” of the snake makes all of the modules in a snakebot work together. The modular design of the snakebot has many advantages. If one module fails, another can be added easily. Snakebot module can also carry different kinds of tools, as well as cameras. Since each module is actually a robot in itself, one module can work apart from the rest if necessary. That is, all the module can separate and move on their own, and then later, reconnect back into a larger robot. Researchers are also trying to develop snakebots made of a special kind of plastic that can change its shape using electricity almost like animal muscles. Snakebots made with this plastic will be very strong and hard to break.

Overall, the snakebot design is much simpler than that of common robots. Thus, snakebots will be much less expensive to build. For example, a robot recently sent to Mars cost over a hundred millions dollars, whereas snakebots can cost as little as a few hundred dollars. With their versatility and affordability, snakebots seem to be the wave of the future, at least as far as space robots and concerned. (Adapted from Reading Challenge 3 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen) Câu 35: What topic does the passage mainly focus on? A. The differences between the old robots and the new ones. B. The physical appearance and problems of the snakebots. C. The reasons for the appearance of the snakebots. D. The composition and abilities of the snakebots. Câu 36: According to paragraph 1, the following are disadvantages of the common robots which have been on Mars, EXCEPT_________. A. uselessness B. fragility C. high manufacturing cost D. difficulty in moving Câu 37: What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to? A. regular robots B. these things C. snakebots D. wheels Câu 38: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about the snakebots? A. They are unable to work in space like a regular robot. B. They are easier to get stuck or fall over than other kinds of robots. C. They are made of over thirty difference modules. D. They can move through myriad difficult terrains. Câu 39: The author implied in paragraph 4 that a snakebot only completely stops working when__________________. A. all the modules cannot reconnect with each other. B. the head of the snake has something wrong. C. the whole parts of the snake are broken down. D. the energy battery in the snakebot runs out of. Câu 40: The word “separate” in paragraph 4 mostly means____________. A. divide into many different parts B. control others to work in the way you want. C. join together D. have effects on others and the way they develop. Câu 41: The word “versatility” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to______. A. flexibility B. firmness C. rigidity D. ability Câu 42: Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author toward the new kind of robot? A. criticize B. appreciate C. disapprove D. admire VI. Đề thi KSCL LẦN I THPT NTG Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate thecorrect answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Christina and James met in college and have been dating for more than five years. For the past two years, they have been living together in a condo they purchased jointly. While Christina and James were confident in their decision to enter into a commitment like a 20-year mortgage, they are unsure if they want to enter into marriage. The couple had many discussions about marriage and decided that it just did not seem necessary. Wasn’t it only a piece of paper? And didn’t half of all marriages end in divorce? Neither Christina nor James had seen much success with marriage while growing up. Christina was raised by a single mother. Her parents never married, and her father has had little contact with

the family since she was a toddler. Christina and her mother lived with her maternal grandmother, who often served as a surrogate parent. James grew up in a two-parent household until age seven, when his parents divorced. He lived with his mother for a few years, and then later with his mother and her boyfriend until he left for college. James remained close with his father who remarried and had a baby with his new wife. Recently, Christina and James have been thinking about having children and the subject of marriage have resurfaced. Christina likes the idea of her children growing up in a traditional family; while James is concerned about possible marital problems down the road and negative consequences for the children should that occur. When they shared these concerns with their parents, James’s mom was adamant that the couple should get married. Despite having been divorced and having a live-in boyfriend of 15 years, she believes that children are better off when their parents are married. Christina’s mom believes that the couple should do whatever they want but adds that it would “be nice” if they wed. Christina and James’s friends told them, married or not married; they would still be a family. Câu 36: Why did Christina and James suppose that marriage was unnecessary? Because_____ A. Half of all marriages ended in divorce. B. It was only a piece of paper. C. They led to an independent life. D. Neither of them had seen much success with marriage while growing up. Câu 37: Which can be used as an antonym of the word “maternal”? A. close B. paternal C. relative D. bloody Câu 38: According to the paragraph 2, which is following statements is TRUE? A. Both James and Christina grew up in broken families. B. James was bought up by his father and his new wife. C. James lived with his mother and her boyfriends for a year. D. Christina lived with her parents until she left for college. Câu 39: Which of the following could be replaced the word “traditional”? A. ancient B. customary C. antique D. old-fashioned Câu 40: Why have Christina and James mentioned the subject of marriage again? A. They have been thinking about having children. B. They have been living together for a long time. C. Christina likes the ideas of her children growing up in traditional family. D. James is concerned about possible marital problems down the road and negative consequences for the children should that occur. Câu 41: What is the advice of the couple’s parents? A. They couple should do whatever they want. B. They can have children without entering into a commitment of marriage. C. They should get married so that children are better off. D. Married or not married, they would still be a family. Câu 42: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Arguments about marriage. B. Negative consequences of a broken family. C. Changes in young people’s attitude to marriage. D. Marital problems Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate thecorrect answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has been. Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed through pipes and radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power. Exploded in a cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms have not much adaptability.

On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful voltages that drive our electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the huge electric magnet in steel works that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by electricity. An electric current can be made with equal ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace, or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee. Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be supplied instantly over vast distances. To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In Australia they use coal or water to drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive the turbines without polluting the atmosphere with smoke from coal. Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always the fear of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths through radiation. Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects. They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to trap sunlight more efficiently. We do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the capacity of solar cells to create more current is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable and the world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels. Câu 43: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The usefulness of electricity B. How to use electricity effectively C. Sources of energy D. The ways to create electricity Câu 44: The word “it” in paragraph 1refers to________________ A. Wind power B. Electricity C. Invention D. Steam Câu 45: According to paragraph 2, electricity can not___________________ A. work a simple calculator B. heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace C. drive our electric trains D. form magnet in steel works and in a doorbell Câu 46: The word “adaptable” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______________. A. suitable B. capable C. profitable D. remarkable Câu 47: According to the passage, the following sentences are true EXCEPT _________________ A. People believe that atomic energy is safe. B. Steam was used to drive engines and warm rooms. C. The Australian use coal and water to generate electricity. D. Turbines and generators are used to make electricity. Câu 48: The word “harness” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to______________. A. raise B. exploit C. catch D. release Câu 49: How many types of sources of energy are mentioned in the passage? A. 9 B. 6 C. 8 D. 7 Câu 50: What can be inferred from the passage? A. An electric current can be made more difficultly to heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace than to boil a jug for a cup of coffee. B. Trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels dismiss the gases that pollute the air. C. Electricity does not have as much adaptability as steam and petrol. D. Coal generates electricity without polluting the atmosphere. VII. TRƯỜNG THPT TAM ĐẢO 2

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. In the Native American Navajo nation which sprawls across four states in the American south-west, the native language is dying. Most of its speakers are middle-age or elderly. Although many students take classes in Navajo, the schools are run in English. Street sign, supermarket goods and even their own newspaper are all in English. Not surprisingly, linguists doubt that any native speakers of Navajo will remain in a hundred years' time. Navajo is far from alone. Half the world's 6,800 languages are likely to vanish within two generations - that's one language lost every ten days. Never before has the planet's linguistic diversity shrunk at such a pace. Isolation breeds linguistic diversity as a result, the world is peppered with languages spoken by only a few people. Only 250 languages have more than a million speakers, and at least 3,000 have fewer than 2,500. It is not necessarily these small languages that are about to disappear. Navajo is considered endangered despite having 150,000 speakers. What makes a language endangered is not that the number of speakers, but how old they are. If it is spoken by children it is relatively safe. The critically endangered languages are those that are only spoken by the elderly, according to Michael Krauss, director of the Alaska Native Language Center, in Fairbanks. Why do people reject the language of their parent? It begins with a crisis of confidence, when a small community finds itself alongside a larger, wealthier society, says Nicholas Ostler of Britain's Foundation for Endangered Languages, in Bath. “People lose faith in their culture” he says. "When the next generation reaches their teens, they might not want to be induced into the old tradition.” The change is not always voluntary. Quite often, governments try to kill off a minority language by banning its use in public or discouraging its use in school, all to promote national unity. The former US policy of running Indian reservation in English, for example, effectively put languages such as Navajo on the danger list. But Salikoko Mufwene, who chairs the Linguistics Department at the University of Chicago, argues that the deadliest weapon is not government policy but economic globalisation. "Native Americans have not lost pride in their language, but they have had to adapt to socio-economic pressures" he says. “They cannot refuse to speak English if most commercial activity is in English." However, a growing interest in cultural identity may prevent the direct predictions from coming true. ‘The key to fostering diversity is for people to learn their ancestraltongue, as well as the dominant language' says Doug Whalen, founder and president of the Endangered Language Fund in New Haven, Connecticut. “Most of these will ive without a large degree of bilingualism” he says. Question 19: What is the main idea of this passage? A. To explain the importance of persevering endangered languages. B. To describe how diverse languages are in the past. C. To explain why more and more languages disappear. D. To point out that many languages being in danger of extinction. Question 20: The word peppered in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________. A. sparsely distributed B. slowly attacked C. randomly separated D. unintentionally controlled Question 21: According to the passage, endangered languages cannot be saved unless people_________. A. know more than one language B. grow interest in cultural identities C. avoid speaking their dominant languageD. write in their mother tongue Question 22: The word these in paragraph 5 refers to_________. A. ancestral tongue B. dominant language C. growing interest in cultural identity D. the key to fostering diversity Question 23: Navajo language is considered being endangered language because_________.

A. it currently has too few speakers B. it is spoken by too many elderly and middle-aged speakers C. it was banned in publicity by the former US policy D. many young people refuse to learn to speak it Question 24: Which statement is NOT supported by the information in the passage? A. National governments could do more to protect endangered languages. B. A large number of native speakers fail to guarantee the survival of a language. C. The loss of linguistic diversity is inevitable. D. Young people often reject the established way of life in their community. Question 25: What is the word interest in the last paragraph means? A. showing our care about the matter. C. describing how diverse languages are in the past. C. explaining why more and more languages disappear. D. pointing out that many languages being in danger of extinction. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Amphibians are an animal group that includes frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts. These animals live in and out of the water. The number of amphibians on our planet is declining rapidly in both local mass extinctions and population crashes. This is a cause for concern as many scientists believe that humans are responsible. Since the 1980s, scientists have noticed a decline in amphibian populations. Although many animals are affected by humans, amphibians have been hit particularly hard. Some scientists believe this is because of their two-stage life cycle. Unlike most animals, amphibians live their lives in two distinct stages. The first is aquatic and the second is terrestrial. This means amphibians are sensitive to environmental changes in the water and on land. They also have permeable skin, which means that toxins and chemicals can easily get into their bodies. At first, some scientists did not believe that human pollution was the cause for changes in amphibian populations. These scientists believed that everyspecies on Earth goes through natural cycles and changes and that there was not enough long-term data to prove that humans were the problem. In recent years, this has changed. Almost all biologists are concerned about the decline in amphibian populations. They are worried not only because many amphibians may go extinct, but also because these extinctionswill affect other plants and animals in ecosystems. They believe that the decline in amphibian populations is a warning to humans to stop polluting and clean up Earth. Question 39: Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage? A. Endangered amphibians B. Endangered reptiles C. Amphibian life cycle D. Amphibians and reptiles Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. The number of amphibians is decreasing rapidly. B. The number of amphibians is increasing. C. The number of amphibians is going up. D. The number of amphibians staying constant. Question 41: In paragraph 2, the word noticed is closest in meaning to_________. A. become aware of B. studied C. analysed D. started to work on Question 42: In paragraph 2, the word they refers to_________. A. amphibians B. humans C. animals D. scientists Question 43: According the passage, which of the following is TRUE about amphibians? A. First they live in the water, then on land. A. First they live on land, then in the water. C. They mainly live in water. D. They mainly live on land. Question 44: In paragraph 2, the word toxins is closest in meaning to_________. A. poisonous substancesB. tonic substances C. essential minerals D. essential vitamins Question 45: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. A clean environment may help to protect amphibians from extinction. B. Amphibians contribute greatly to biodiversity. C. All amphibians will go extinct in the near future. D. Protecting amphibians is the responsibility of all people on Earth. KẾT QUẢ ỨNG DỤNG VÀ BÀI HỌC KINH NGHIỆM I. Kết quả. Sau một thời gian áp dụng chuyên đềvào giảng dạy và luyện đề thi THPTQG, tôi đã có được những kết quả đáng ghi nhận. Phần lớn các em học sinh đã nắm được cách làm bài đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh.Học sinh không còn e dè khi làm các dạng bài đọc. Tỉ lệ học sinh bị điểm liệt giảm. Thay vào đó là điểm trung bình – khá. Bằng việc hướng dẫn , cung cấp ví dụ minh họa trong đề thi THPTQG đã giúp các em tự tin hơn khi tiếp cận với dạng bài tập khó này. Kết hợp với việc tra cứu từ vựng thông qua các loại từ điển OXFORD DICTIONARY,OXFORD COLLOCATION DICTIONARY,TFLAT DICTIONARY. ,LONGMAN DICTIONARY OF TEMPORARY ENGLISH,TỪ ĐIỂN LẠC VIỆT. Đồng thời cũng khuyến khích các em chịu khó đọc sách báo tạp chí để tăng vốn hiểu biết các lĩnh vực trong cuộc sống hàng ngày .Từ đó học sinh làm các bài đọc hiểu hiệu quả hơn. Năm học LÂN 1 LÂN 2 LÂN 3 2018-2019 3.3 3 3.5 2019-2020 2.4 II. Bài học kinh nghiệm. - Giáo viên là nhân tố rất quan trọng trong việc chuẩn bị bài dạy một cách kĩ lưỡngvà định hướng các dạng bài tập đọc hiểu một cách linh hoạt hiệu quả, gợi mở, hướng dẫn chi tiết, đưa ra nhiều tình huống viết để học sinh nắm bắt và lựa chọn cho phần viết câu, phù hợp với mọi đối tượng học sinh. - Chia nhỏ các dạng bài sẽ giúp học sinh ghi nhớ tốt hơn vì các em không phải ghi nhớ quá nhiều thông tin cùng lúc. - Sửa chữa những lỗi sai kịp thời như từ vựng, cấu trúc câu, ngữ nghĩa giúp học sinh hiểu và ghi nhớ. - Giáo viên cần tăng cường kiểm tra khi giao đề cho các em viết ở nhà. - + Từ thực tế giảng dạy của bản thân tôi nhận thấy rằng để học sinh làm tốt được các dạng bài tập trong đề thi THPTQG nói chung và với chuyên đề “Hướng dẫn học sinh làm các dạng câu hỏi của bài đọc hiểu trong đề thi THPT quốc gia nói riêng là làm sao rèn cho học sinh kĩ năng tự học khi đã nắm được các bước căn bản của các dạng bài thi. Tài liệu tham khảo - 1. Bộ đề ôn thi THPTQG 2018-2019 - 2. Intenet Sông Lô, ngày 15/10/2019 Người báo cáo KHỔNG NGỌC MINH